2013年12月31日星期二

Dernières Nortel 920-803 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 920-803
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Nortel technology standards and protocol for ip telephony solutions)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

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NO.1 How does Real-Time Control Protocol (RTCP), the control protocol of Real-Time Protocol (RTP), assist
RTP in handling packetized voice in an IP telephony environment?
A. Controls the RTP data flows.
B. Identifies sources and provides QoS feedback.
C. Interoperates with Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
D. Controls the network bandwidth used by RTP data flows.
Answer: B

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NO.2 To implement VoIP on a customer's IP network, which transport protocol should you use to best meet
the real-time requirement for VoIP, and why?
A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP); It ignores lost packets.
B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP); It retransmits lost packets.
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP); The amount of delay time is bounded.
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP); The amount of delay time is bounded.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A video conference is in progress between two networked locations using gigabit Ethernet. The video
conferencing application is using User Datagram Protocol (UDP) to transport the video and audio data.
Why should UDP be used instead of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
A. TCP CANNOT handle streaming data applications.
B. UDP is better than TCP at seamlessly synchronizing voice and video together.
C. UDP serves as an efficient transport for handling real-time application traffic.
D. UDP uses less bandwidth than TCP in a WAN, but more bandwidth than TCP in a LAN.
Answer: C

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NO.4 To achieve the QoS necessary to deliver voice between two points on a Frame Relay network, which
two items are required to guarantee that voice quality is maintained? (Choose two.) Assume that a
Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC) is available to address converged voice and data.
A. a Variable Bit Rate (VBR) service type
B. a WAN access device that shapes traffic
C. a WAN access device that does NOT fragment voice IP packets
D. a WAN access device that can manage First-In, First-Out (FIFO) queuing
E. a Committed Information Rate (CIR) large enough to address the total peak voice traffic plus a portion
allocated for Best-Effort (BE) data
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Which CODEC delivers the greatest compression?
A. B. 711
C. D. 723.1
E. F. 726
G. H. 729
I. J. 729A
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two CODECs have the least delay (processing or algorithmic)? (Choose two.)
A. B. 711
C. D. 723.1
E. F. 726
G. H. 729
Answer: AE

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NO.7 The basic attributes of Real-Time Protocol (RTP) provide for support of applications like voice and
video. Which three attributes of RTP support real-time applications? (Choose three.)
A. Timestamping
B. Packet sequencing
C. Header compression
D. Payload identification
E. Packet retransmission
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 What are two differences between IP, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) and Frame Relay (FR)?
(Choose two.)
A. ATM has a fixed cell size, but IP and FR do NOT.
B. FR has built in mechanisms within the protocol for QoS.
C. ATM is connectionless, but IP and FR are connection oriented.
D. IP is a Layer 3 protocol, but ATM and FR are Layer 2 protocols.
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: 922-100
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls.4.0 to Rls.5.0 Delta)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has upgraded from a Communication Server (CS) 1000S to a CS 1000E Standard
Availability (SA). Due to their projected company and network growth, they are contemplating upgrading
to a CS 1000E High Availability (HA) system. Which component(s) differentiate a HA system from a SA
system?
A. a second CP-PM
B. enabling the HA software package
C. a second CP-PM and a CP-PM Call Server
D. a second CP-PM and enabling the HA software package
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 and needs additional temporary IP
User Licenses for controlled load sharing between two systems.
Which statement is true regarding the licenses to be ordered and the use of additional IP User Licenses?
A. No additional licenses need to be ordered. If the customer runs out of IP User Licenses for the 1150E,
they can use the Basic IP User Licenses.
B. Basic IP User Licenses must be ordered. Regular IP Licenses will be used if the temporary license
count is exceeded.
C. Regular IP User Licenses must be ordered. Basic IP User Licenses will be used if the temporary
license count is exceeded.
D. Temporary User Licenses should be ordered. Basic IP or Regular IP User Licenses will be used if the
temporary license count is exceeded.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. To take advantage of features
supported by the Enterprise Common Manager (ECM) framework, which systems can be deployed as the
ECM? (Choose two.)
A. VxWorks Operating System and ISP 1100
B. Linux Operating System and IBM x306m
C. Linux Operating System and HP DL 320
D. VxWorks Operating System and HP DL 320
E. VxWorks Operating System and IBM x306m
Answer: BC

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NO.4 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. Which hardware components also
provide DSP services? (Choose two.)
A. 32-port DSP Daughterboard
B. 96-port DSP Daughterboard
C. 128-port DSP Daughterboard
D. Media Gateway Controller card (MC32B)
Answer: AB

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NO.5 A customer is upgrading a Communication Server 1000S to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0.
Which hardware component replaces the Media Gateway 1000S controller card?
A. DSP Daughterboard
B. Media Card 32 Port Security
C. No hardware change required.
D. Media Gateway Controller card
E. Call Processor Pentium Mobile
Answer: D

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L'avènement de la certification Nortel pratique d'examen 920-470 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 920-470
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Nortel Converged Office for Comm Svr 1000 Rls5.x Plan and Eng)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Click on the Exhibit button.
In the configuration, the Office Communicator (OC) client has the capability of selecting a voice mail
option.
Which protocol provides the communications between the Office Communicator Server (OCS) 2007 Front
End Server and the Mediation Server?
A.SIP
B.RTP
C.TCP
D.MTLS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button.
An Office Communicator (OC) 2007 user makes a call to an IP telephone user. Both OC 2007 and IP
telephone users are talking with one another.
Which protocol shown in the exhibit provides the communications between the Office Communicator
Server (OCS) Proxy with MCM and the Mediation Server?
A.TCP/SIP
B.RTP
C.sRTP
D.SIP
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company is planning to deploy a new Communication Server (CS) 1000E with Nortel Converged
Office. They want to provide media security (SRTP) to encrypt the IP media path to and from all of the
DSP channels.
Which EC Report shows the correct components?
A.-@b$

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Code d'Examen: PMI-SP
Nom d'Examen: PMI (PMI Scheduling Professional)
Questions et réponses: 326 Q&As

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NO.1 Examine the figure given below:
If Activity B takes eight days to complete instead of five days as schedule, how long can you now delay
Activity H?
A. Three days
B. One day
C. Four days
D. Zero days
Answer: B

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. When activities are logically linked, they become the
__________
Answer: Schedule.

NO.3 You are the project manager of the NHA Project. This project is expected to last one year with quarterly
milestones throughout the year. Your project is supposed to be at the third milestone today but you're
likely only 60 percent complete. Your project has a BAC of $745,000 and you've spent $440,000 of the
budget-to-date. What is your schedule performance index for this project?
A. 80
B. 1.02
C. 102
D. 0.80
Answer: D

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NO.4 Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week and will
have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication channels will Ben's project
have next week?
A. 140
B. 10
C. 325
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.5 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate
performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you
create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report
Answer: B

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NO.6 Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have
been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is
planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project
management planning is known as what?
A. Imminent activity management
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Predecessor-only diagramming
D. Decomposition
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates
for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for
this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Answer: A

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NO.8 Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project.
There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule.
Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.9 John works as a project manager of the NHQ Project. He has created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
Based on the project network diagram, how much float is available for Activity H if Activity B is delayed by
four days and Activity E is delayed by two days?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: A

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NO.10 Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the
stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders
process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are the project manager for your organization. You need the oak cabinets for your project
delivered by December 1 in order to install the floors around the oak cabinets by December 15.
Your company's procurement office generally takes 45 days to complete procurement orders. Based on
this information, how should you schedule the lead time for the cabinet delivery?
A. Cabinet procurement December 1, plus 45 days lead time
B. Cabinet procurement November 15
C. Cabinet procurement December 1, minus 45 dayslead time
D. Cabinet procurement December 15 minus 45 dayslead time
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the
predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and
free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float
and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?
A. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
B. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project successors.
C. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project predecessors.
D. Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the
figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect
the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the
activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
Answer: D

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NO.15 Once the project's WBS has been created what process may happen next?
A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are the project manager of the NHGQ project for your company. You must create and distribute
performance reports every week to your key project stakeholders. What communication technique do you
normally use to distribute reports?
A. Push technique
B. Many-to-many
C. One-to-one
D. Pull technique
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are the project manager of the GHT Project. Ben, one of your project team members, does not
understand the idea of a milestone. Which of the following best describes what a milestone is?
A. A significant point in the project
B. A goal of reaching a significant delivery of project benefits by an identified date
C. An imposed date for the project to reach a given point
D. The completion of a project activity that is crucial to project completion
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. You have created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
You are concerned about a risk on Activity G that if it happens will delay the project by four days.
You would like to utilize float for Activity G. How much float is available for Activity G to help offset the risk
event?
A. Five days
B. Four days
C. Eleven days
D. Zero
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which one of the following estimate types is a form of expert judgment?
A. Parametric estimate
B. Analogous estimate
C. Bottom-up estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: B

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NO.20 The Define Activities process is the first process in the project time management knowledge are a.
The Define Activities process creates just three outputs as a result of decomposition, rolling wave
planning, templates, and expert judgment. Which one of the following is not an output of the Define
Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates
Answer: D

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NO.21 Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the
project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date,
so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the
project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the
decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for
which one?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. WBS
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: C

PMI examen   PMI-SP examen   PMI-SP

NO.22 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
The __________ includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performancereporting
or post-project operational support for the procured item.
Answer: procurement SOW

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NO.23 Your project team is executing the project plan and things are going well. Your team has reached
its first milestone and is now in the second phase of the project. The project stakeholders have requested
that you find a method to reduce the duration of the project. They will reward you and your project team
with a 25 percent bonus of the project costs if you can finish the project thirty days earlier than what was
already planned. The stakeholders, however, will not approve any additional labor costs as part of the
agreement. Which approach could you use to shorten the duration of the project?
A. Perform resource leveling for the project.
B. Crash the project schedule.
C. Fast track the project.
D. Remove things from the project scope.
Answer: C

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NO.24 You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where
you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of
$567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project's
to-complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Answer: A

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NO.25 You are the project manager of the GHY Project. Management wants you to create a process
improvement plan for your project. Your project will be studied by management and will become a
standard for all future organizational projects based on your project's performance, approach, and
implementation of project processes. All of the following should be included in your project's process
improvement plan except for which one?
A. Process boundaries
B. Process configuration
C. Targets for improved performance
D. Identification of project risks
Answer: D

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NO.26 George is the project manager of the NHQ Project and has a budget of $778,000. The project is
scheduled to last for one year with an equal amount of work completed each quarter. The second quarter
of the project has ended and George has spent $325,000 but has only finished forty percent of the project.
Management needs a variance report for the project schedule. What value should George report in this
instance?
A. .96
B. -$77,800
C. $-34,500
D. -$13,800
Answer: B

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.27 Your project has a BAC of $750,000 and is 75 percent complete. According to your plan, however, your
project should actually be 80 percent complete. You have spent $575,000 of your project budget to reach
this point and you are worried about the project not being able to complete based on your current project
budget. What is the to-complete performance index for this project?
A. 0.98
B. -$16,677
C. 1.07
D. 0.94
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are the project manager for your company. You are working with the activities defined in the figure
below.
What will happen to your project if Activity F takes five additional days to complete than what was
expected?
A. Your project's critical path will shift to ACFI.
B. Your project will be late by five days.
C. Your project can still complete on time as float is available onActivity I.
D. Your project will now have two critical paths.
Answer: B

PMI examen   PMI-SP   PMI-SP examen

NO.29 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. Management has set a conformance to the project
schedule for your project at 0.95. What does this term mean?
A. It means the largest schedule variance you can have is five percent.
B. It is the earned value divided by the planned value for your project.
C. It is the expectation of management to be 95 on schedule at 95 percent of the project.
D. It means you will need to earn at least 95 cents per dollar invested in the project.
Answer: A

PMI   PMI-SP   PMI-SP   PMI-SP

NO.30 Mark is the project manager of the GHQ Project. He is happily reporting that his project has a schedule
performance index of 2.12. Management, however, does not think this is good news.
What is the most likely reason why management does not like an SPI of 2.12?
A. It is not good news because a larger number means the schedule duration estimates were likely to be
wrong to begin with.
B. They likely do not understand the SPI formula.
C. It is not good news, as the number should be closer to 100 than 0.
D. It is good news, but Mark may have large cost variances to achieve this value.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CA0-001
Nom d'Examen: PMI (Certified Associate in Project Management)
Questions et réponses: 525 Q&As

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NO.1 Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying
tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
Answer: A

PMI   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001   certification CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.2 The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring & Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B

PMI   certification CA0-001   certification CA0-001   CA0-001 examen

NO.3 You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is
effective and current?
A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
Answer: A

certification PMI   CA0-001   CA0-001 examen   certification CA0-001

NO.4 Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A

certification PMI   CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.5 What is the definition of project plan execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities.
B. Performing the activities included in the plan.
C. Developing and maintaining the plan.
D. Execution of deliverables.
Answer: B

PMI   certification CA0-001   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001   CA0-001 examen

NO.6 Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Cost Control
B. Quality Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Cost Budgeting
Answer: A

PMI examen   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001 examen

NO.7 What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-Location
Answer: D

PMI   CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.8 Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is
improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
Answer: D

PMI   CA0-001   certification CA0-001

NO.9 While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will
delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process.
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.
Answer: A

PMI   CA0-001   CA0-001   certification CA0-001   certification CA0-001

NO.10 How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
Answer: C

PMI examen   CA0-001   certification CA0-001   CA0-001   CA0-001   certification CA0-001

NO.11 Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A

certification PMI   CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.12 Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
Answer: C

PMI   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001

NO.13 As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total
project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
Answer: B

PMI   CA0-001 examen   certification CA0-001

NO.14 On what is project baseline development established?
A. Approved product requirements
B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule
Answer: B

PMI   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001   CA0-001   CA0-001 examen

NO.15 Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions
B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints
Answer: A

PMI examen   certification CA0-001   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001 examen

NO.16 What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewart-Deming
D. Delphi
Answer: C

PMI examen   CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.17 Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking
Answer: A

PMI examen   CA0-001   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.18 Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Answer: C

PMI   certification CA0-001   CA0-001 examen

NO.19 The projectt management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:
A. Always be applied uniformly
B. Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. Be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. Be applied based on ISO guidelines.
Answer: C

certification PMI   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001

NO.20 Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation
through project closure?
A. Resource leveling
B. Parametric measuring
C. Pareto chart
D. Earned value
Answer: D

PMI   certification CA0-001   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001

NO.21 A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of
today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.
What is the cost variance?
A. -$700
B. -$200
C. +$200
D. +$500
Answer: A

PMI examen   certification CA0-001   CA0-001   certification CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.22 During what process is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Answer: C

PMI   CA0-001 examen   CA0-001 examen   certification CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.23 Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and
who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Project Management Methodology
C. Project Management Information
D. Project Selection Methods
Answer: A

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NO.25 Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner. What is an output from information distribution?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
Answer: C

PMI examen   CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.26 Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
Answer: C

PMI   CA0-001   certification CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.27 How is quality control performed?
A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining
corrective actions as needed.
C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.
D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure
conformance to quality standards.
Answer: B

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NO.28 What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Work breakdown structure update
C. Project network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
Answer: C

PMI examen   CA0-001   CA0-001 examen

NO.29 Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes
needed to meet its requirements?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Quality Planning
Answer: C

PMI examen   certification CA0-001   CA0-001   CA0-001

NO.30 Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Answer: B

PMI   CA0-001 examen   certification CA0-001   certification CA0-001

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Code d'Examen: ICDL-Windows
Nom d'Examen: ICDL (The ICDL L4 Windows Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

certification ICDL   ICDL-Windows examen   ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows

NO.2 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

ICDL   certification ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows   ICDL-Windows examen

NO.3 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
A. R.click on my computer->pro perties->General->select the RAM Speed->ok
Answer: A

ICDL examen   ICDL-Windows examen   ICDL-Windows   certification ICDL-Windows

NO.4 Pressing which of the following keys would place a picture of what is currently displayed on your monitor
onto the clipboard?
A. A
Answer: A

ICDL examen   ICDL-Windows examen   ICDL-Windows

NO.5 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: FM0-306
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12)
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

certification FileMaker   FM0-306 examen   FM0-306

NO.2 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDSelf
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Seta sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configurethe portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. basesthe portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

FileMaker examen   FM0-306   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.3 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table from
Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to call a
script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

certification FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306   certification FM0-306

NO.4 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 12 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
B. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
C. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of match fields can be used.
D. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: A,E

FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.5 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer:

NO.6 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter calculated value,
with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace existing value of field
unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be refreshed
with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record
Answer: D

certification FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.7 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

certification FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306   FM0-306 examen

NO.8 Which statement is true about the Relationships Graph in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Table occurrences can represent tables from external JDBC data sources.
B. A single Relationships Graph can include references to no more than 256 external files.
C. A set of relationships between tables can be created as a loop if every table occurrence in the loop has
a unique name.
D. The Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship setting can be selected between two
table occurrences if the relationship includes only equality (=, or ) matches between fields.
Answer: D

certification FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306   certification FM0-306

NO.9 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.10 What will a recursive custom function do when a stack limit is exceeded?
A. returns !
B. returns ?
C. returns Error 1203: Unexpected end of calculation
D. produces a spinning beach ball (Mac OS X) or a rotating cursor (Windows)
Answer: C

FileMaker   certification FM0-306   FM0-306 examen

NO.11 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 12 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about container fields that are configured to Store container data
externally in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two)
A. Container data stored externally using Secure storage is encrypted.
B. FileMaker Pro 12 can store a maximum of 64 million external files per database file.
C. It is possible to customize the directory location where FileMaker Pro 12 will store external container
data.
D. Once a container field has been configured to store data internally, the data must be re-imported if the
field is changed to store data externally.
Answer: A,C

FileMaker   certification FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.13 For which field type can the field validation setting Strict data type: Numeric Only be applied?
A. Text
B. Date
C. Integer
D. Summary
E. Timestamp
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-306 examen   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.14 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.15 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

certification FileMaker   FM0-306   certification FM0-306

NO.16 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 12 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.17 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list of all of
a salesperson's orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order records
are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E

FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.18 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced?
A. 10, 000
B. 32, 000
C. 50, 000
D. 64, 000
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-306 examen   certification FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.19 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the FileMaker
Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both
Answer: D,E

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

VMware   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.2 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

VMware   VCP410   VCP410   VCP410

NO.5 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

VMware   VCP410   VCP410 examen

NO.6 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

VMware   VCP410   VCP410   VCP410 examen   VCP410

NO.7 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.9 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.10 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

VMware examen   VCP410   VCP410   VCP410

NO.12 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.13 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

VMware examen   VCP410   VCP410 examen   VCP410

NO.15 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

certification VMware   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.16 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

VMware   VCP410 examen   VCP410   VCP410

NO.18 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

VMware   certification VCP410   VCP410

NO.20 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: VCP410-DT
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 4 - Deskto)
Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 A View administrator needs to distribute ThinApp packages from a newly created ThinApp repository.
The corresponding ThinApp package has been set with the streaming option.
Which three ThinApp specific items will be stored inside the corresponding application repository?
(Choose three.)
A. the ThinApp sandbox for the corresponding ThinApp package
B. the .EXE file for the corresponding ThinApp package
C. the .DAT file for the corresponding ThinApp package
D. the .MSI file containing the shortcut
E. a shortcut to the ThinApp package on the network share
Answer: B,C,D

VMware examen   VCP410-DT examen   VCP410-DT   VCP410-DT

NO.2 A system administrator is deploying a legacy ThinApp package to production users when the original
install media for the legacy application disappears.
Which ThinApp feature will enable the system administrator to perform an update to an existing ThinApp
package, integrate the update with the original ThinApp project, and then deploy the update across all
users?
A. Side by Side update
B. SBmerge
C. ThinApp Merge
D. AppSync
Answer: B

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NO.3 Following a recent upgrade to the View environment to View 4.6, the option to set the PCoIP External
URL of the Security Server is not available from View Administrator.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The View Security Server was not upgraded to version 4.6.
B. The External URL should have been set during the installation of the View Security Server.
C. The View Security Server service is not running on the View Connection Server.
D. The External URL was not configured from the View Security Server Management Interface.
Answer: A

VMware examen   VCP410-DT   VCP410-DT   VCP410-DT examen

NO.4 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A new Connection Server has been added to the View environment. View administrators and clients
cannot connect to that new Connection Server. However, connectivity to the pre-existing Connection
Servers remains active.
Which three configurations should be verified to diagnose the problem.? (Choose three.)
A. that you can connect directly to the new Connection Server using telnet on port 80
B. that the View Connection Server services are running on the newly added Connection Server
C. that the IP address for the new Connection Server has not changed on the server or within DNS
D. that the Security Server associated with the Connection Server is running
E. that the vCenter Server system associated with the Connection Server is running
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 What are the virtualization software requirements for View Connection Server?
A. vSphere 4.0 Update 2 or vSphere 4.1
B. vSphere 4.0 Update 1 or vSphere 4.1
C. VMware Infrastructure 3.5 Update 4 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 5 D. VMware Infrastructure
3.5 Update 3 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 3
Answer: A

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NO.8 A user attempts to connect to a desktop from outside of the corporate network through a View 4.5
Security Server, but for several seconds sees only a black screen that is followed by an error message
from the View Client that indicates The connection to the remote computer ended.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The Security Server is not configured to accept PCoIP connection remotely.
B. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set to an incorrect address.
C. The VPN connection was not established prior to the user connecting to the View environment.
D. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set using an incorrect port.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A system administrator needs to create an application repository for ThinApp deployments from the
View Administrator.
Which two items are required in order to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. Windows network share
B. ThinApp distribution point
C. NFS datastore
D. ThinApp MSI files
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three Replica Servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
A. Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
B. Three Replica Servers can result in client connection problems.
C. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
D. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A company opens a new remote office with five PCoIP-enabled thin clients. The administrator
configures the clients to connect to the View Security Server installed at headquarters.
Which setting must the administrator configure on the View Security Server to make sure PCoIP is routed
to the internal network?
A. PCoIP External URL
B. PCoIP Gateway URL
C. PCoIP Gateway Address
D. External URL
Answer: A

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NO.12 To use previously created desktop virtual machines, which type of desktop pool should the View
administrator create?
A. automated desktop pool
B. manual desktop pool
C. persistent desktop pool
D. custom desktop pool
Answer: B

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NO.13 A university has implemented VMware View for classroom labs around the campus. The View
administrator needs to ensure that students only print to the printer located in the lab. Each lab has a
dedicated printer.
Which View feature meets these requirements?
A. ThinPrint-based printing
B. Location-based printing
C. Central-based printing
D. Local-based printing
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer provides a list of requirements for the virtual desktop environment for consideration during a
pre-implementation discussion.
Which three customer requirements will be satisfied by the View Connection Server in its role as a
connection broker? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication
B. desktop provisioning
C. connection negotiation between the client and the virtual desktop
D. desktop assignment, if available
E. USB redirection
Answer: A,C,D

VMware   VCP410-DT   VCP410-DT examen

NO.15 A new SSL certificate has been installed on the View Security Server.
Which step must be completed to ensure that the Security Server uses the new certificate?
A. restart the VMware View Connection Server service
B. restart the VMware View Security Server service
C. start the newly created SSL_Certificate service
D. edit the locked.properties file to enable the new SSL certificate
Answer: B

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