2014年4月30日星期三

Les meilleures Oracle 1z0-497 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-497
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about transactions in Oracle Database 12c?
A. Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.
B. A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.
C. Multiple transactions cannot share the same extent in an undo tablespace.
D. If all the segments in an undo tablespace are used, transactions use system undo segments to
store undo data.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.3 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?
A. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database
without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part
of the database.
B. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database must be in
BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
C. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database doesn't
have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
D. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01 /backup.121 /e17630/release_changes.htm#BRADV276 (new
features, third bullet)

NO.6 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?
A. SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a single server.
B. Each server process has its own SGA.
C. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
D. SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data, information about
database objects, and query results
E. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
F. SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.8 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.9 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.10 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: UM0-200
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional intermediate exam)
Questions et réponses: 154 Q&As

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol
extends downward rather than leftward?
A. There is no significance.
B. The interface cannot be provided via a port.
C. The interface does not require a delegation connector.
D. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.
E. The interface is the primary interface for the component.
F. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What statements are true about a composite structure? (Choose two)
A. Collaborations are structured classifiers.
B. A structured classifier is also an encapsulated classifier.
C. Structured classifiers cannot contain instances of structured classifiers.
D. Destroying an instance of a structured classifier normally destroys instances of its parts.
E. The behavior of a structured classifier must be completely defined through the collaboration of owned
or referenced instances.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 What most accurately describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
A. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator realize Invoicer.
B. Invoicer realizes HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator.
C. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator are Invoicer ports.
D. An Invoicer component is composed of a HeaderGenerator component and a LineItemGenerator
component.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an invocation action on a port used for?
A. sending a message to that port
B. receiving a message on that port
C. creating a link and attach it to that port
D. relaying the invocation via links connected to that port
E. invoking the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
Answer: D

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit. How many interfaces does the CustomerService component make visible to its
clients?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is NOT true about a roles and role bindings?
A. A role binding is an association.
B. The same object may play roles in multiple collaborations.
C. A role binding maps a connectable element to a role in a collaboration occurrence.
D. The same connectable element may be bound to multiple roles in a single collaboration occurrence.
E. A role typed by an interface specifies a set of features required by a participant in a collaboration.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Assume component A provides an interface P and requires an interface R. In order for a component
B to be substituted for component A, what must be true?
A. Components must be related to each other via a dependency.
B. The interface that A requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that B provides.
C. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
D. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A requires, and
the interface that B provides must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An encapsulated classifier is characterized by which fact?
A. has an encapsulation shell
B. can own one or more ports
C. hides information from other classifiers
D. acts as a package and can own one or more classifiers
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does the composite structure exhibit show?
A. The diagram is not valid.
B. The two F interfaces must come from different packages.
C. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 can be distinguished.
D. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 will always result in the same
behavior.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does the composite structure notation in the exhibit mean?
A. Class C has internal structure.
B. Object c1 is a kind of component.
C. Port p is connected to an object called F.
D. Port p realizes the features defined by interface F.
E. Port p requires the features defined by interface F.
Answer: E

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NO.11 What interface restrictions does a port have?
A. multiple required interfaces or multiple provided interfaces
B. multiple provided interfaces and multiple required interfaces
C. equal numbers of provided interfaces and required interfaces
D. exactly one provided interface or exactly one required interface
E. exactly one required interface and exactly one provided interface
Answer: B

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NO.12 What best describes the distinction between a delegation connector and an assembly connector?
A. A delegation connector can be used to model the internals of a component, while an assembly
connector cannot.
B. Assembly connectors provide white box views of components, while delegation connectors provide
black box views.
C. An assembly connector connects two components while a delegation connector connects the internal
contract of a component with its external parts.
D. An assembly connector connects the required interface or required port of one component with the
provided interface or provided port of another component, while a delegation connector connects the
external contract of a component with its internal parts.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which is true of a provided interface associated with a port?
A. represents an interface that must be defined within the classifier that owns the port
B. identifies the services that the object owning the port expects of objects connected via that port
C. identifies the services that the object owning the port can offer to other objects connected via that port
D. represents an interface that must be defined in the same package in which the classifier owning the
port is defined
Answer: C

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NO.14 A component may legally participate in which relationship(s)?
A. dependencies
B. associations and generalizations
C. dependencies and generalizations
D. dependencies, associations, and generalizations
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is NOT a purpose of a port owned by a classifier?
A. serves as an end point for connectors
B. specifies an association to the classifier
C. hides the internals of that classifier from other classifiers
D. provides a distinct point of interaction between the classifier and its environment
Answer: B

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NO.16 What best describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
A. This is an illegal diagram.
B. The OrderEntity component is part of the internals of the Invoicer component.
C. The Invoicer has a complex connector that connects the GenerateInvoice interface with the Order
interface.
D. The Invoicer has a complex port that provides the interface GenerateInvoice and requires the interface
Order.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which must be true in order to use a delegation connector to connect two components?
A. The components must have complex ports.
B. One component must be a subtype of the other.
C. The components must be related to each other via a dependency.
D. One component must be part of the internal realization of the other component.
Answer: D

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NO.18 To what does an internal structure of a class refer?
A. the inheritance structure of that class
B. the set of nested classifiers of that class
C. the set of structural features of that class
D. class and associations owned by that class
E. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
Answer: E

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NO.19 How can the internals of a component be presented?
A. using a complex component connector
B. component provides port or a component requires port
C. in a compartment of the component box or a component requires port
D. in a compartment of the component box or via boxes nested within the component box
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which list contains only connectable elements?
A. port and connector end
B. behavior, port and property
C. connector end, port and part
D. property, port, and parameter
E. behavior, connector end, and port
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 050-663
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell edirectory and active directory)
Questions et réponses: 136 Q&As

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NO.1 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Replicators
E. Administrators
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which objects displayed in ConsoleOne can be modified and allow you to add
eDirectory users to an Active Directory group? (Choose 2.)
A. Group
B. Server
C. Organization
D. eDirectory User
E. Organizational Unit
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which are features of Windows 2000 Advanced Server? (Choose 2.)
A. It supports up to 4 GB RAM.
B. It supports multiple processors.
C. It provides clustering technologies.
D. It supports Windows 95 device drivers.
E. It supports RAID technology for software virus protection.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 What is the maximum RAM capacity of Microsoft Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server?
A. 1 GB
B. 16 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 64 GB
E. 128 GB
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is required before eDirectory can be installed on Windows 2000? (Choose 2.)
A. NTFS
B. ConsoleOne
C. eDirectory manager
D. SLP Directory agent
E. Administrative rights
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 When compared to Windows 2000 Advanced Server, Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server provides which advantages? (Choose 3.)
A. The Process Control tool
B. Support for up to 128 GB RAM
C. 4-node clustering and load balancing services
D. Support for Physical Address Extension (PAE)
E. Support for all Pentium III Coppermine Processors
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 What is the primary mechanism supporting the Kerberos v5 protocol?
A. Key Generation Center
B. Key Distribution Center
C. Ticket Granting Service
D. Key Distribution Control
E. Mutual Authentication Center
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Backup Operators
D. Domain Operators
E. Network Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 When a user logs in to Windows 2000 Professional, which component verifies that
the username and password are correct?
A. WinLogon
B. WinVerify
C. Local security database
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
E. Security Accounts Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement defines the Windows 2000 Advanced Server term "scaling up"?
A. An increase in accessibility of a server via the LAN
B. Increasing the client access license count for a server
C. Distributing the load of network requests through server technology
D. The increased performance and capacity gained by adding processors and memory to
a server
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your network environment includes 1 Windows 2000 server, 5 Windows 2000
workstations, 5 Macintosh computers, and 2 printers. You need to share company
records that are stored on the server. Which file system would you choose during a
Windows 2000 Server installation?
A. HPFS
B. NTFS
C. OS/2
D. FAT-16
E. FAT-32
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statements about Windows 2000 native mode are true? (Choose 2.)
A. Native mode allows backward compatibility.
B. After you make the switch to native mode, it cannot be undone.
C. After you make the switch to native mode, you can switch back to mixed mode at any
time.
D. You can switch to native mode if there are Windows NT domain controllers within the
domain.
E. Native mode allows you to take advantage of all features and capabilities of Active
Directory.
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 Which statements are true regarding the process of logging in to Windows 2000
Server? (Choose 2.)
A. The login process cannot be disabled.
B. A password for the Administrator user is required.
C. The Ctrl + Esc keystroke initiates the login process.
D. The Ctrl + Alt + Del keystroke initiates the login process.
E. The login process must be manually enabled when the workstation is connected to a
network.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 When would Windows 2000 Server be a good choice over Windows 2000
Professional? (Choose 2.)
A. When a web server is needed
B. When Terminal services are needed
C. When plug-and-play support is needed
D. When local security for files is needed
E. When multiple processors exist in a machine
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Which 2 advantages are provided by Windows 2000 Advanced Server over
Windows 2000 Server? (Choose 2.)
A. Higher performance server capability
B. Internet Information Server 5.0 included
C. The ability to link servers to handle larger loads
D. Enhanced Microsoft Management Console functions
E. The ability to handle up to 10 processors and up to 8 GB RAM
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: 050-710
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell Certified Linux Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 Waht is the correct syntax for mounting the second partition of the first SCSI hard disk?
A. mount /mnt /dev/hda2
B. mount /dev/hda2 /mnt
C. mount /dev/sdb1 /mnt
D. mount /mnt /dev/sdb1
E. mount /dev/sda2 /mnt
F. mount /mnt /dev/sda2
Answer: E

Novell examen   050-710   050-710 examen   050-710 examen

NO.2 How large is an inode?
A. 256 bits
B. 64 Kbytes
C. 128 bytes
D. 1 Mbyte
Answer: C

Novell   050-710   050-710

NO.3 As system administrator root, you use the lpoptions command to change printer options, such as the
page sizE. To which file are these options saved?
A. ~/.bashrc
B. ~/.lpoptions
C. /etc/cups/lpoptions
D. /etc/sysconfig/cups
Answer: C

Novell examen   050-710   050-710   050-710   certification 050-710

NO.4 Which statements about partitions are correct? (Choose 3.)
A. Extended partitions can be subdivided into logical partitions.
B. A primary partition consists of a continuous range of cylinders.
C. Logical partitions do not require entries in the main partition tablE.
D. If you use only primary partitions, you are limited to eight partitions per disk.
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10 can only be installed on a primary partition.
F. To install more than one operating system on a partition, the partition has to include the entire cylinder
rangE.
Answer: ABC

Novell   050-710   050-710   050-710 examen

NO.5 Why are the noauto and users options used with /etc/fstab?
A. A normal user is not allowed to access this partition.
B. They allow any user to mount and unmount a partition.
C. They specify the partitions that are bootable by a user.
D. They specify the partitions that are not bootable by a user.
Answer: B

Novell examen   certification 050-710   050-710 examen

NO.6 Which command can be used to view the inode assigned to a filename?
A. ls -i
B. fsck -h -i
C. inode --list
D. cat /proc/inodes
Answer: A

Novell   050-710   050-710   050-710

NO.7 In which file is the host name of a Linux computer configured? (Hint: You do not need to include the
entire patH. )
Answer:______
Answer:

NO.8 You want to view the last 20 lines of the /var/log/messages file and any new lines that are subsequently
added by syslog to this filE. Which command would you use?
A. tail -20f /var/log/messages
B. end -20f /var/log/messages
C. less -20f /var/log/messages
D. follow -20 /var/log/messages
Answer: A

Novell   certification 050-710   050-710   050-710 examen

NO.9 Which statements about the LVM components are correct? (Choose 2.)
A. A volume group is part of a logical volumE.
B. Logical volumes are grouped in a master group.
C. A volume group always consists of one physical volumE.
D. A physical volume can be a partition or an entire hard disk.
E. A volume group can be reduced in size by removing physical volumes.
F. The operating system accesses the volume groups like conventional physical partitions.
Answer: DE

Novell examen   050-710 examen   050-710 examen

NO.10 What information do you need to set up an LDAP client? (Choose 4.)
A. LDAP version
B. LDAP base DN
C. Kind of encryption
D. Synchronization frequency
E. Address of the LDAP server
F. File name of the LDAP database
Answer: ABCE

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NO.11 Which command can you use to create a Reiser file system on the sda6 partition? (Choose 2.)
A. mkreiserfs /dev/sda6
B. fdisk.reiserfs /dev/sda6
C. makE. reiserfs /dev/sda6
D. fdisk -t reiserfs /dev/sda6
E. mkfs -t reiserfs /dev/sda6
Answer: AE

Novell examen   050-710   050-710

NO.12 What is the correct order of steps to change the partition table using fdisk?
A. You can't use fdisk to change a partition tablE.
B. Start fdisk > Change the partition table > Write the partition table to hard disk > Exit fdisk > Reboot.
C. Start fdisk > Change the partition table > Write the partition table to hard disk > Exit fdisk > Load the
partition table from the boot prompt.
D. Start fdisk > Change the partition table > Write the partition table to floppy disk or USB stick > Exit
fdisk > Boot from floppy disk or USB stick.
Answer: B

Novell examen   certification 050-710   050-710 examen

NO.13 Which user authentication methods can be used with SLES 10? (Choose 4.)
A. NIS
B. WEP
C. SSH
D. PAM
E. LDAP
F. Handshake
G. Windows Domain
H. Local (/etc/passwd)
Answer: AEGH

Novell examen   050-710   certification 050-710   certification 050-710

NO.14 Which are journaling file systems? (Choose 3.)
A. XFS
B. ext2
C. ext3
D. VFAT
E. minix
F. VFAT32
G. ReiserFS
Answer: ACG

Novell   050-710   certification 050-710   certification 050-710

NO.15 You would like to run command1 and then command2, whether or not command1 completed
successfully. Which command accomplishes this task?
A. command1 | command2
B. command1 ; command2
C. command1 > command2
D. command1 & command2
Answer: B

Novell   050-710   certification 050-710

NO.16 Which command can you use to check an ext2/ext3 file system for a correct superblock, faulty data
blocks, or faulty allocation of data blocks?
A. df
B. du
C. fdisk
D. e2fsck
E. reiserfsck
Answer: D

Novell examen   050-710 examen   certification 050-710   050-710

NO.17 What is the minimum number of partitions required by a SLES 10 system?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C

certification Novell   050-710 examen   050-710   050-710   certification 050-710   050-710 examen

NO.18 Which command is used to enter or change the quota for user tux?
A. quotacheck
B. repquota tux
C. edquota -u tux
D. edquota -g tux
E. /sbin/quotaon tux
Answer: C

Novell   050-710 examen   certification 050-710

NO.19 Which statement about the /sbin/ldconfig command is correct?
A. The ldconfig command is used to link directories.
B. The ldconfig command is used to configure an LDAP connection.
C. The ldconfig command is used to update the software library cachE.
D. The ldconfig command is used to show dynamic libraries needed by a program.
Answer: C

Novell examen   050-710   050-710   050-710 examen   certification 050-710

NO.20 Which is the main configuration file for logrotate?
A. /etc/logrotate
B. /etc/logr.conf
C. /etc/cron/logrotate
D. /etc/logrotatE. conf
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 50-632
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Networking technologies)
Questions et réponses: 42 Q&As

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NO.1 Which IPX network addresses are reserved for special purposes? (Choose three.)
A.00000000
B.11111111
C.FFFFFFFF
D.FFFFFFFE
E.AAAAAAAA
F.AAAA0000
Correct:A C D

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.2 What protocol is normally considered to be both a LAN and WAN protocol?
A.PPP
B.ATM
C.X.25
D.SLIP
E.ISDN
F.Frame Relay
Correct:B

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NO.3 How many bits are in an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.32
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.4 How many characters may be in a single domain name label?
A.16
B.63
C.120
D.255
Correct:B

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.5 What IPX routing protocol is best suited for an internetwork that contains 138 routers, multiple
redundant routes that require load balancing, and three WAN links? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.6 How many IP addresses must be combined to create the IP supernet address 215.100.16.0/21?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
F.7
G.8
H.9
I.10
Correct:G

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.7 A network administrator has been assigned a Class B network address of 150.225.0.0. The
administrator then subnetted the network with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. If the administrator
is reserving node addresses of all "0's" and all "1's," what is the range of available node
addresses for the subnet 150.225.32.0?
A.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.44.254
B.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.47.254
C.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.48.254
D.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.50.254
E.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.52.254
F.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.44.254
G.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.46.254
H.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.48.254
I.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.52.254
J.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.54.254
Correct:A

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NO.8 Supernetting requires a minimum of how many consecutive IP network addresses? Answer:
A.2
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.9 What protocol provides access to the X.500 and is specifically targeted at simple management
and browser applications? Answer:
A.LDAP,(LIGHTWEIGHTDIRECTORYACCESSPROTOCOL)
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.10 Select the link state routing protocols. (Choose two.)
A.RIP
B.LAT
C.SNA
D.NLSP
E.RTMP
F.OSPF
Correct:D F

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.11 A network uses a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. It reserves host addresses containing all "1's".
How many host addresses are available for each subnet?
A.255
B.512
C.1023
D.2047
Correct:D

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.12 Click on the Exhibit button. A Class B network uses the subnet mask 255.255.224.0. The network
will reserve subnets of all "0's" and all "1's". What is the maximum number of available subnets?
Answer:
A.6
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.13 What information is exchanged in an initial "hello" packet between OSPF routers? (Choose
three.)
A.hello interval
B.router priority number
C.full link state database
D.IP address and subnet mask
E.summary of the link state database
F.summary of the link state advertising database
Correct:A B D

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.14 What are two disadvantages to RIP? (Choose two.)
A.static routing
B.count-to-infinity
C.resource intensive
D.slow convergence time
E.lack of industry support
Correct:B D

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.15 Which IPv4 address classes are reserved for specific uses and may not be assigned to hosts?
(Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Correct:D E

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.16 What IPX routing protocol generally uses the least bandwidth, provides the fastest routing
updates, and offers scalability for large internetworks? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.17 What IPX routing protocol offers load balancing capabilities without reducing the physical size
of the internetwork? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.18 Identify the network devices associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. (Choose two.)
A.NICs
B.routers
C.switches
D.gateways
E.repeaters
F.active hubs
Correct:A C

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NO.19 Which two components of the TCP/IP protocol suite map to the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD
model? (Choose two.)
A.IP
B.TCP
C.FTP
D.NFS
E.UDP
F.ARP
Correct:B E

certification Novell   50-632   50-632   certification 50-632   certification 50-632

NO.20 What is the maximum number of bytes that can be dedicated to the station address portion of an
IPv4 address? Answer:
A.THREE
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: 50-676
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Upgrading to netware 6)
Questions et réponses: 147 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statements are true concerning filtered replicas on an eDirectory server? (Choose 2.)
A.A server can hold both full replicas and filtered replicas.
B.Each replica on a server can be configured with its own filter.
C.A replica filter cannot be modified; it must be removed and then recreated.
D.Servers running eDirectory versions earlier than 8.5 cannot synchronize with filtered replicas.
E.The master replica of a partition being filtered must reside on a server running eDirectory 8.5 or later.
Answer:A E

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NO.2 Which of the following are components of Novell Clustering Services (NCS) 1.6? (Choose 3.)
A.An IDE controller
B.A shared disk system
C.SCSI cards and cables
D.eDirectory 5.0 and later
E.NetWare 6 servers configured to use IP
Answer:B C E

Novell   50-676   certification 50-676

NO.3 You need to modify your iPrint environment. Which web-based utility do you use to create and modify
Printer, NDPS Broker, and NDPS Manager objects?
A.iMonitor
B.ConsoleOne
C.Remote Manager
D.Novell iManager
E.Server Management Console
Answer:D

Novell   certification 50-676   50-676   certification 50-676

NO.4 Which NetWare 6 user access component allows a user to log in to a NetWare server from a
Macintosh workstation without the use of the NetWare client?
A.NFAP
B.iFolder
C.NetDrive
D.NetStorage
E.Web Access
Answer:A

Novell   certification 50-676   50-676 examen   50-676   50-676 examen

NO.5 You have installed NFAP for Windows and are in the process of creating simple passwords for all
objects in the Education container. What utility can you use to create all user simple passwords at one
time?
A.iMonitor
B.ConsoleOne
C.Novell iManager
D.Remote Manager
E.Server Management Console
Answer:D

Novell   50-676   certification 50-676   50-676   50-676 examen

NO.6 In which situation will you be able to restore a deleted NSS volume?
A.When its associated storage pool is deleted
B.When both the volume and its storage pool are deleted
C.When the volume is deleted, but the storage pool is not
D.When only the volume is deleted and the Purge Delay time has not passed
E.When its associated storage pool is deleted and the Purge Delay time has not passed
Answer:D

Novell   50-676   50-676   certification 50-676   50-676

NO.7 When creating an eDirectory index you must select a rule to use. Which rules are available? (Choose 3.)
A.Entry
B.Value
C.Absence
D.Presence
E.Substring
Answer:B D E

Novell   50-676   50-676   50-676   certification 50-676

NO.8 Which statements are true regarding iFolder? (Choose 2.)
A.The iFolder client can be installed on any UNIX workstation.
B.The iFolder client can be installed on any Windows workstation.
C.The iFolder client can be installed on any Macintosh workstation.
D.Applications associated with the files in the iFolder directory must be installed on the local workstation.
E.The iFolder directory must be the root directory of whichever workstation the client is installed on.
Answer:B D

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NO.9 Click the Point-and-Click button to begin. Click the object you use to configure WebAccess gadgets.
Answer:

NO.10 When adding a new site to NetDrive, you did not specify a protocol in the Site Address/URL field.
Which protocol is used by default?
A.FTP
B.TFTP
C.HTTP
D.HTTPS
E.iFolder
F.WebDAV
Answer:A

Novell   50-676   50-676 examen   certification 50-676

NO.11 Which eDirectory database file could hold a user's login script information?
A.0.DB
B.NDS.DB
C.NDS.01
D.NDS*.LOG
E.00000110.NDS
Answer:E

Novell examen   50-676 examen   50-676   50-676

NO.12 How much memory must a NetWare 6 server have to install Novell Clustering Services (NCS) 1.6?
A.1 GB
B.128 MB
C.256 MB
D.512 MB
Answer:C

Novell examen   certification 50-676   50-676 examen   50-676

NO.13 You have a server with the following specifications: NetWare 5.0 with Support Pack 6a Pentium II
processor with 256 MB RAM 200 MB of free space on the DOS partition 3 GB of free space on volume
SYS You want to replace this server with a NetWare 6 server as easily and inexpensively as possible. You
have no other available machines, but purchasing new hardware is possible if it is necessary. Which
option best meets these objectives?
A.Perform an in-place upgrade to NetWare 6.
B.Perform a NetWare accelerated upgrade to NetWare 6.
C.Obtain new hardware to install a NetWare 6 server and copy the current server data to it.
D.Use the migration wizard to migrate the current server's data to new NetWare 6 server hardware.
Answer:A

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NO.14 You are using Deployment Manager to update eDirectory on your network servers. Which steps do you
perform to see a list of all servers that need to be updated in your tree? (Choose 2.)
A.Select each server object in the tree.
B.Click the Check NDS Version button.
C.Select the top-most container in the tree.
D.Click the Include Subordinate Containers button.
E.Mark the Verify Version box next to each server object.
Answer:C D

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NO.15 Which are features and benefits of NSS? (Choose 2.)
A.Clustering
B.Borrowing space from other partitions
C.The creation of multiple storage pools within a partition
D.Saving your file data to disk immediately after you save the file instead of waiting for the next flush cycle
E.Turning off file compression after it's enabled on a volume without having to recreate the volume
Answer:A D

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NO.16 Which is a component of eDirectory 8.6?
A.A 0.DSB file to hold index information about the database
B.Streams files used to hold information such as login scripts
C.Novell's transaction tracking system to ensure database integrity
D.Files named 01.DB, 02.DB, etc. to hold all database record information
Answer:B

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NO.17 When performing a health check after installing eDirectory 8.6, how can you check to see if there are
any obituaries?
A.Use ConsoleOne> Tools> Obituary Check
B.Use ConsoleOne> Tools> Partition Status
C.Set DSTRACE=+S and Set DSTRACE=*H
D.Set DSTRACE=+OBIT and Set DSTRACE=*O
E.Set DSTRACE=+BLINK and Set DSTRACE=*B
F.Use DSREPAIR -A> Advanced Options> Check External References
G.Use DSREPAIR -A> Advanced Options> Report Synchronization Status
Answer:F

Novell   50-676   50-676   50-676   50-676 examen

NO.18 Which statements describe an eDirectory index? (Choose 2.)
A.An index is stored in its associated server's file system.
B.An index is stored as an attribute on a server object in a tree.
C.An index is stored as an attribute on a container object in a tree.
D.An index is created at the root of the tree and applies throughout the tree.
E.An index is unique to one server but can be applied to more than one server.
Answer:B E

Novell   50-676   50-676 examen   50-676

NO.19 You are performing an eDirectory health check prior to installing NetWare 6 and eDirectory 8.6. Which
command displays schema synchronization information?
A.SET DSTRACE=+S
B.SET DSTRACE=*S
C.SET DSTRACE=*SS
D.SET DSTRACE=*SSA
E.SET DSTRACE=+SCHEMA
F.SET DSTRACE=*SCHEMA
Answer:E

certification Novell   certification 50-676   50-676   50-676   50-676

NO.20 What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install NetWare 6?
A.56 MB
B.128 MB
C.256 MB
D.512 MB
E.1 GB
Answer:C

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2014年4月29日星期二

IBM C2150-563 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2150-563
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two uses for a Server mode Connector? (Choose two.)
A. to implement a web service
B. to intercept LDAP bind requests
C. to run AssembyLines in Simulation mode
D. to run multiple AssembyLines simultaneously
E. to enable First Failure Data Capture in AssemblyLines
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What is an Initial Work Entry?
A. It logs information about an initial error code.
B. It is an entry passed to an AssemblyLine when it is started.
C. It is the first entry retrieved from the Connector in Iterator mode.
D. It is used during initialization of the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components are used to control
AssemblyLine flow?
(Choose two.)
A. Else Branch
B. Attribute Map
C. Fail-over Node
D. Connector Loop
E. Aggregator Loop
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 What is the unit of work in IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1?
A. Project
B. Connector
C. System Store
D. AssemblyLine
Answer: D

IBM   C2150-563 examen   C2150-563 examen   C2150-563

NO.5 Which two statements are true about an AssemblyLine (AL)? (Choose two.)
A. An AL with an empty Feed section can do work.
B. An AL must have at least one component in the Flow section.
C. All ALs run in sequence, each one starting when the previous one shuts down.
D. The Recycle Execution mode ensures that an AL is re-launched if it terminates.
E. The Feed section acts like a loop and cycles the Flow section components once for each
available
entry.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which three IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components can be used in an
AssemblyLine?
(Choose three.)
A. Script
B. Compiler
C. Connector
D. Protocol Bridge
E. Lexical Analyzer
F. Function Component
Answer: A,C,F

IBM   C2150-563   certification C2150-563   C2150-563

NO.7 Which statement is true for Server mode?
A. It is similar to the Delta mode.
B. It can be used in the Flow Section of the AssemblyLine.
C. It is used to play back a recorded AssemblyLine execution.
D. It binds to some resource (like an IP port), accepts client connections, processes incoming
data, and
returns a response to the client.
Answer: D

IBM   C2150-563 examen   C2150-563

NO.8 Which three platforms support IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. HP/UX
C. Android
D. OS/400
E. System z
F. Mac OS X
Answer: A,B,E

IBM   certification C2150-563   certification C2150-563

NO.9 A company's business requirements state that real-time changes must be
synchronized from an IBM
LDAP directory to an RDBMS database. Which Connector is required to feed data in to the
AssemblyLine?
A. JNDI Connector
B. FileSystem Connector
C. LDAP Server Connector
D. IBM Tivoli Directory Server Change Log Connector
Answer: D

IBM   C2150-563   C2150-563   certification C2150-563   C2150-563

NO.10 Which two statements are true about one AssemblyLine (AL1) starting another
AssemblyLine (AL2) in
IBM Tivoli Directory
Integrator V7.1 (TDI)? (Choose two.)
A. Both ALs can run at the same time.
B. Both ALs must be part of the same TDI Project.
C. Both ALs must be running on the same TDI Server.
D. The Task Call Block is used to pass in parameters and data.
E. If AL2 is started using script calls then it runs at a higher priority.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which two statements are true regarding a Task Call Block (TCB)? (Choose two.)
A. It is used for deleting an entry in Delete mode.
B. It is used by a caller to set a number of parameters for an AssemblyLine (AL).
C. It contains information about AL exceptions and error codes.
D. It is a Search (criteria) object used by ALs and Connectors to specify a generic search
criteria.
E. It can provide a list of input or output parameters specified by an AL, including operation
codes defined
in theOperations tab of the AL.
Answer: B,E

IBM examen   C2150-563   C2150-563 examen

NO.12 Which connector type must be used to access an LDAP LDIF file?
A. JNDI Connector
B. LDIF Connector
C. LDAP Connector D. File System Connector
Answer: D

IBM   C2150-563   C2150-563   C2150-563   C2150-563

NO.13 Which statement is true for the Action Manager?
A. It updates the Work Entry.
B. It can send an Initial Work Entry to an AssemblyLine.
C. It is a command line utility used for importing certificates.
D. It executes rules that are configured using the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is a valid component in an AssemblyLine?
A. Script
B. Method
C. Procedure
D. Subroutine
Answer: A

IBM   C2150-563 examen   C2150-563   C2150-563

NO.15 Where does the Delta Engine store the snapshots it takes of data being iterated?
A. Work Entry
B. Conn Object
C. System Store
D. System Queue
Answer: C

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NO.16 AssemblyLines can be monitored using which two methods? (Choose two.)
A. System Store
B. Changelog Connectors
C. Server mode Connectors
D. command line utility tdisrvctl
E. Administration and Monitoring Console
Answer: D,E

IBM examen   C2150-563 examen   C2150-563 examen   C2150-563 examen

NO.17 Which Connector mode can be used in the AssemblyLine Feed section?
A. Delta
B. Iterator
C. Updat
D. AddOnly
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two statements are true for the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Entry
Object? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes and correlates events.
B. It can represent a single database row.
C. It acts as a client to a connected system.
D. It can be manipulated directly from Hook scripts.
E. It is used to encode a byte stream during read and write operations.
Answer: B,D

IBM examen   C2150-563 examen   C2150-563

NO.19 Which two options are available in AssemblyLine (AL) settings? (Choose two.)
A. view AL statistics
B. select the Property Store to use
C. configure Null Behavior at the AL level
D. define default error handling for the AL
E. set the AL pool size when Server mode is in use
Answer: C,E

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NO.20 What are two different ways to start an AssemblyLine (AL) with parameters from
another AL? (Choose
two.)
A. AssemblyLine Parser
B. AssemblyLine Launcher
C. AssemblyLine Connector
D. AssemblyLine Loop Component
E. AssemblyLine Function Component
Answer: C,E

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Code d'Examen: A4070-603
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: System z Sales V6)
Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a key benefit to customers who deploy zEnterprise compared
to other
solutions?
A. Virtualization and hardware management across multiple platforms
B. A management solution that provides support across multiple x86 hypervisors.
C. A management solution for the complete mulit-vendor infrastructure within a datacenter.
D. A hypervisor infrastructure that allows movement of an application online between
different
architectures.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer recently ordered a zEnterprise with a zBX. Which of the following is the
best action the sales
specialist could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A. Propose a Fit For Purpose Study
B. Schedule an implementation planning meeting
C. Propose Extended Warranty Contract for the zBX
D. Propose an Early Ship Program (ESP) for running their AIX applications
Answer: B

IBM examen   A4070-603   certification A4070-603   A4070-603

NO.3 A customer is considering Linux solution. There are several competitive solutions under
consideration.
The System z sales specialist is considering System z Solution Edition for Enterprise Linux or
an IBM
Enterprise Linux Server. Which of the following is included in these offering.?
A. Predefined hardware, software, services
B. Predefined hardware, Linux subscription, and Linux services
C. IBM middleware, Extended Warranty, VMContol
D. RACF, zAAP , DirMaint
Answer: A

IBM   A4070-603   A4070-603

NO.4 A System z Sales Specialist is preparing a proposal for a z10 customer for a potential
upgrade to
zEnterprise system. They need to propose a z196 model with 20% growth to the existing
capacity. How
can the seller best determine the right model for the customer?
A. Refer to the MIPS table to find the matching model
B. Discuss with the customer to find out what is their preferred model
C. Engage Techline to perform capacity planning on the current machine
D. Use Sales Plays to find correct model
Answer: C

IBM   A4070-603   A4070-603   A4070-603

NO.5 A customer requested System z software details and pricing. Which IBM tool would be
utilized to
configure the software products?
A. zPCR
B. zIAW
C. eConfig
D. CFSW
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2040-925
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the following scenario, what will occur if the sender attempts to recall a message
after 10 days
have elapsed since it was originally sent to the recipient: - The sender and recipient are on
the same mail
server - The server is configured to allow message recall - The recipient is a member of a
group policy
that allows message recall - The sender is a member of a group policy that does not allow
message recall
- The sender has an explicit policy that allows message recall Message recall is allowed for
14 days for
the sender - Message recall is allowed for 8 days for the recipient
A. The sender will be allowed to recall the sent message
B. The sender will not be allowed to recall the sent message
C. The sender will receive a non-delivery report back stating the message recall failed
D. The sender will be prompted that they have exceeded the maximum time allowed for
message recall
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which ONE of the following is required when setting up transactional logging on a
server?
A. Enable Transactional Logging in the server document.
B. Add TRANS_LOG=1 to the server's NOTES.INI file.
C. Create a Transactional Logging document in the Directory Catalog.
D. Modify the NOTES.INI log settings to read LOG=LOG.NSF, TRANSLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.3 Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one
of the following
describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?
A. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option
available.
B. Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The
administrator can
specify the order of secondary searches.
C. LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary
directories. This
is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary
directories.
This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
Answer: B

IBM examen   C2040-925   certification C2040-925

NO.4 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes
the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A. There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B. Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who
share a common
organizational certifier.
C. Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory.
Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D. Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users
and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

IBM   certification C2040-925   C2040-925

NO.5 A Notes mail message is sent by Miguel to an Internet address through an adjacent
Domino domain
over NRPC that then sends mail to the Internet over SMTP. Miguel is now attempting to
recall the mail
message. Which of the following will be the result of his attempt?
A. He will receive an email that he cannot recall the email message
B. He will immediately receive a prompt that the message is not enabled for message recall
C. He will receive a message from the Internet recipients mail server that the message
cannot be recalled
D. He will successfully recall the message if it is allowed in the server configuration and
enabled in his
user policy
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2040-925   C2040-925 examen

NO.6 Which of the following are optional advanced services that must be enabled manually
when first
configuring and installing the Domino server?
A. SMTP server
B. Agent Manager
C. Calendar Connector
D. DOLS (Domino Off-Line Services)
Answer: A

IBM examen   C2040-925   C2040-925   C2040-925

NO.7 Each time Melissa creates a certifier ID, Domino creates a certifier ID file and which of
the following?
A. Password database
B. Certifier document
C. Password hash file
D. Certifier database
Answer: B

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NO.8 Chaz, the Domino administrator, has noticed performance issues when LDAP
searches are being
performed against the Domino Directory. Which of the following is the best offered solution to
improve
performance?
A. Extend the LDAP schema to add new attributes
B. Create a full text index of the Domino Directory
C. Configure Directory Assistance to load all users into memory in advance
D. Delete the ($LDAP) view in the Domino Directory and let it rebuild automatically
Answer: B

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NO.9 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document
placed?
A. NAMES.NSF
B. CERTLOG.NSF
C. CATALOG.NSF
D. DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

IBM   C2040-925 examen   certification C2040-925

NO.10 When creating the ID Vault for your domain, which of the following cannot be the name
of the vault?
A. The name of the server the vault is created on
B. The name of the administrator creating the vault
C. The name of the group that will manage the id vault
D. The same as an organizational unit used in the Domino domain
Answer: D

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NO.11 In order for Peggy to establish alternate message recall settings on a per server basis,
which of the
following is the best solution?
A. Configure the message recall settings in an organization level policy
B. Configure the message recall settings in each server's notes.ini file
C. Configure the message recall settings in each server configuration document
D. Configure the message recall settings in explicit policies and manually apply to users
Answer: C

certification IBM   C2040-925 examen   C2040-925 examen   C2040-925 examen

NO.12 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary
directory must only
be used for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of mbiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory
that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

IBM   C2040-925   C2040-925   C2040-925

NO.13 While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which
Domino server
hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not
configured?
A. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server
B. The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain
C. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server
D. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2040-925   C2040-925

NO.14 In order to create a Domino cluster, which rights are required for you to have to the
Domino Directory.?
A. Editor access rights and ClusterModifier role
B. Reader access rights and ServerWriter and ServerManager roles
C. Designer access rights and ClusterCreator and ClusterModifier roles
D. Author access and Delete Documents rights and the ServerModifier and ServerCreator
roles
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2040-925   certification C2040-925

NO.15 Edison, the Domino Administrator, wants to enforce file security on HTML and Image
files. Which one
of the following should he do?
A. Enforce ECLs
B. Create File Protection documents
C. Use Protect Directories in the HTTPD.CNF files
D. Domino does not allow security enforcement on HTML and Image files
Answer: B

IBM   C2040-925 examen   C2040-925

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