2014年3月31日星期一

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Code d'Examen: MSC-331
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Designing and Deploying Mobile Computing Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 The design phase of the pilot is an area that is often neglected. Which of the following is NOT
true regarding the design phase?
A. The best time to influence a pilot's trustworthy design is at pilot completion.
B. The design phase typically relies on information gathered from the planning phase.
C. Good pilot design should ensure or facilitate a framework for periodic project evaluation.
D. During the design phase you establish best practices to follow for this phase by way of functional
and design specifications, and you perform risk analysis to identify threats and vulnerabilities in
your pilot.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following 802.11 wireless supplicants are available and supported on Motorola
Solutions Mobile Computers (select TWO)?
A. Aegis
B. Fusion
C. Odyssey
D. Windows Zero Configuration
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Your are having issues establishing radio communication on a mobile computer and you think
that the client radio output is the problem. In which of the following areas can you adjust the
mobile computers radio transmit power?
A. Fusion Options
B. System Options
C. Regulatory Options
D. Profile Management Options
E. You cannot change the mobile computers radio transmit power
Answer: E

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NO.4 Motorola Enterprise Mobility Configuration Tools (EMCTs) are comprehensive tools designed
to assist in staging, provisioning, and troubleshooting, as well as improving the user experience with
Motorola Mobile Devices. Which of the following are Motorola EMCTs Tools (select THREE)?
A. StartupCtl
B. PowerTest
C. RemCapture
D. CtlPanelWM
E. Spread Spectrum Analyzer
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 The Enterprise Mobility Developers Kit (EMDK) for .NET allows Microsoft: .NET Compact
Framework developers to programmatically access the enterprise mobility features on the devices.
This developer kit is designed for use with all of the following versions of Microsoft Visual Studio
EXCEPT:
A. Microsoft Visual Studio 2003
B. Microsoft Visual Studio 2005
C. Microsoft Visual Studio 2008
D. Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following memory forms is used in most memory cards and solid-state drives?
A. NOR Flash
B. NAND Flash
C. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
D. Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your customer has selected a MC9190-G with a SE4500-SR scan engine. They are now asking
you what the maximum distance they can expect to scan 13 Mil standard UPC-A barcodes. Which of
the following would be your response?
Please reference the Technical Specifications exhibit at the bottom.
A. 6.8 in (17.27 cm)
B. 12.0 in (30.48 cm)
C. 15.5 in (39.37cm)
D. 27.0 in (68.58 cm)
Answer: C

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NO.8 A client needs a mobile device solution that requires the following:
GSM and/or CDMA WWAN
Small Form Factor
Consumer Style Device
Occasional Barcode and Photo Capture
What would be the best mobile device selection from the mobile device portfolio?
A. ET1
B. ES400
C. MC75A
D. MC3190
E. MC9090G
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: EADP10
Nom d'Examen: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Professional)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 A water utility company had received calls from several customers complaining of low water
pressure.
Using a geometric network representing the water network, how can an ArcGIS user determine the
most likely location of the problem?
A. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Common Ancestors trace
task
B. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Disconnected trace task
C. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Trace Upstream trace task
D. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Find Path upstream trace task
Answer: A

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Reference: http://ssl.tamu.edu/courses/frsc652 /lab/gdbase_lab_exercises.pdf (page 3, step 9)

NO.2 An ArcGlS user plans to distribute a series of map documents where the amount of time the
map file can be viewed is limited.
Which format should the user create to specify a timeout period for these maps?
A. .mpk
B. .ipk
C. .pmf
D. .msd
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/ 9.3 /index.cfm?TopicName=Publishing_optimized_map_ser
vices

NO.3 In the value for the latitude of origin in a projection tile is modified, making the value less
negative (e.g.from -45 to -28). which way does the data move?'
A.north
B.south
C.east
D.west
Answer: B

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NO.4 A taster contains pixels with decimal values.
Which method is used to round raster pixel values to the nearest whole number?
A. use the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst)
B. use the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst)
C. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 1, then the Minus tool (Spatial Analyst) to subtract 0.5
D. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 0.5, then the int tool (Spatial Analyst) to truncate to the
nearest integer
Answer: B

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NO.5 A user wants to connect new laterals to supply water to newly built houses. What edge type
supports this function?
A. an edge between two junctions
B. a complex edge
C. a subtype of edge
D. a simple edge
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://edndoc.esri.com/arcobjects/ 8.3 /TechnicalDocuments/Network/ArcGISNetworkModel/ArcGIS
Network.htm (topic 2.1.2, see the first image)

NO.6 An image that is displayed as draped over a digital elevation model (DEM) in ArcGlobe appears
to be overly pixilated.
Which property should be changed to make the image appear smoother?
A. stretch type
B. resampling method
C. contrast setting
D. unit conversion
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibits.
An ArcGIS user is attempting to create a relationship class between the two tables shown in the
exhibit using POSTAL_CODE and Zip_Code as the origin primary key and destination foreign keys,
respectively. However when the user tries to set the keys Zip_Code does not appear in the
drop-down list of candidate keys
What should the user do to successfully create the relationship class?
A. change the relationship type from non attributed to attributed
B. make sure both tables are in the same geodatabase
C. create data type compatible key fields
D. move both tables to the same feature dataset
Answer: B

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NO.8 An ArcGIS user receives two shapefiles that are defined with the same projection and
represent features in the same study area. When they are displayed together in ArcMap, the
difference of their locations in coordinate space is so large that they are barely visible when viewed
at their full extent.
How can the user determine whether the projections of the shapefiles are correctly defined?
A. by comparing the shapefiles to a correctly projected dataset that has a large enough extent to
encompass the study area
B. by systematically changing the spatial reference of the data frame until the shapefiles correctly
align
C. by using the Spatial Adjustment toolbar to move the shapefiles to the same part of coordinate
space
D. by examining the metadata of both shapefiles to determine the projection processes applied to
the data1
Answer: A

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NO.9 An ArcGIS user runs the Central Feature geoprocessing tool on a polygon feature class. The
output feature is far north of the center of the feature class
Why is the output feature off center of the feature class?
A. There are more polygons in the northern part of the feature class
B. The polygons in the northern part of the feature class are larger
C. The feature class is not in the same promotion as the data frame
D. A weight field is not specified
Answer: D

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NO.10 Using the Spatial Analyst IDW (Inverse Distance Weighted) tool an ArcGIS user interpolates a
point feature class to a raster. The user notices that some high point values near the edge of the
feature class seem to have a dramatic effect on the output. This occurs even in areas that are far
from the high edge values
Which two parameters should the user consider changing in the IDW tool? (Choose two)
A. z-value field
B. search radius
C. power
D. output cell size
E. weight
Answer: D,E

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Code d'Examen: S90-18A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Service A relies on a shared identity store. Service B has its own identity store. Service C also has its
own identity store, but must also access the shared identity store used by Service A. Which service has
the least reduction in autonomy as a result of its relationship with identity store mechanism(s)?
A. Service A
B. Service B
C. Service C
D. The autonomy of all services is affected equally
Answer: B

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NO.3 A service contract includes a security policy that exposes specific details of the service's underlying
implementation. This is an example of the application of which service-orientation principle?
A. Service Abstraction
B. Service Loose Coupling
C. Standardized Service Contract
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Service A sends a message to Service B which reads the values in the message header to determine
whether to forward the message to Service C or Service D. Because of recent attacks on Services C and
D, it has been decided to protect the body content of messages using some form of encryption. However,
certain restrictions within the design of Service B will not permit it to be changed to support the encryption
and decryption of messages. Only Services A, C and D can support message encryption and decryption.
Which of the following approaches fulfill these security requirements without changing the role of Service
B?
A. Transport-layer security is implemented between all services.
B. Message-layer security is implemented between all services.
C. Service B is removed. Instead, the routing logic is added to Service A.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 As a requirement for accessing Service B, Service A needs to encrypt its request message. Service B
decrypts the message, makes some changes, encrypts the message, and then forwards it to Service C.
However, the message does not make it to Service C. Instead, a runtime error is raised by a service agent
that does not support encryption. This service agent only requires access to the message header in order
to route the message to the appropriate instance of Service C. It is therefore decided that the header part
of the message will not be encrypted. Which of the following can be used to address this requirement?
A. certificate authority
B. SAML
C. non-repudiation
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Service A and Service B belong to Organization A and Service C belongs to Organization B. Service A
sends confidential messages to Service B, which forwards these messages to Service
C. The message sent to Service C is intercepted by a load balancing service agent that determines which
instance of Service C to route the message to. This entire message path needs to be encrypted in order
to ensure message confidentiality from when the message is first sent by Service A until it is received by
an instance of Service C. Organization A doesn't trust any intermediaries that may exist in between
Service B and Service C and also doesn't want to share any keys with Organization B. Furthermore, there
is a requirement to minimize any adverse effects on performance. Which of the following approaches
fulfills these requirements?
A. Use message-layer security by adding symmetric encryption between Services A, B and C. This
way,message content is not available to any intermediaries between Services B and C.
B. Because Service A and Service B exist within the same organizational boundary, use transport-layer
security to provide message confidentiality. Use message-layer security via asymmetric encryption
between Service B and Service C.
C. Use transport-layer security between Service B and Service C and use message-layer security via
asymmetric encryptionbetween Service A and Service B. This way. all the services are secured while at
the same time minimizing the performance degradation between Service B and Service C.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.9 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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NO.11 Digital signatures use encryption and hashing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.13 The requirement to defer security related state data at runtime relates directly to the application of which
service-orientation principle?
A. Service Loose Coupling
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.14 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 The application of the Brokered Authentication pattern is best suited for a scenario whereby a service
consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself with multiple services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C90-06A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 15 Q&As

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NO.1 Cloud Service A requires access to Cloud Storage Device A, which contains LUNs A and B.
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which resides on Hypervisor A on Physical Server A.
Virtual Server B hosts Cloud Service B and Cloud Service C.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1), which then accesses LUN A or B on Cloud
Storage Device A (2). After receiving the requested data from Cloud Service A, Cloud Service
Consumer A forwards the data to Cloud Service B (3), which then writes it to Cloud Storage Device B
(4).
Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A.
Organization A uses LUN A and LUN B on Cloud Storage Device A to store their important client
account data. Cloud Storage Device A is a low-performance cloud storage device, which begins to
cause performance issues as more data is added to LUNs A and B and as Cloud Service Consumer A
performs data access requests more frequently. Organization A asks that its cloud architecture be
upgraded to process increased quantities of data and higher volumes of data requests.
Organization A has been leasing a PaaS environment that it used to build Cloud Service A, which it
would like to make available to the general public. Organization A needs to establish a system
capable of monitoring usage of Cloud Service A for billing purposes.
The cloud provider is using a usage data collection and reporting system that gathers information on
Organization A's hosted IT resources approximately ten hours after the time of usage. One day,
Organization A attempts to retrieve information on whether Virtual Server B has available Cloud
Service C instances. They discover that they are unable to obtain the current status of Virtual Server
B.
Organization A demands a system that provides instant availability reporting.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, Pay-as-You-Go. Self-Provisioning
B. Service Load Balancing, Pay-as-You-Go, Multipath Resource Access
C. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering, Usage Monitoring, Centralized Remote Administration
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Ready-Made Environment A is hosted by Virtual Server A and Ready-Made Environments is
hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Servers A and B are hosted by Hypervisor A, which is part of a hypervisor cluster. An
automated scaling listener intercepts cloud consumer requests and automatically invokes the
on-demand generation of additional instances of ready-made environments, as required.
A self-service portal and a usage and administration portal are also available to cloud consumers.
The self-service portal can be used to request the provisioning of a new ready-made environment.
Any cloud consumer that has already had a ready-made environment provisioned can configure and
view information about that ready-made environment via the usage and administration portal.
Cloud Consumer A accesses Ready-Made Environment A to work on the development of a new
cloud service (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Ready-Made Environment B to test a recently
completed application comprised of three cloud services (2). Cloud Consumer C accesses the
self-service portal to request the creation of a new ready-made environment (3).
The cloud provider is required to perform an emergency maintenance outage on a cloud storage
device used by all ready-made environments. The unplanned outage takes two hours. During this
period, Cloud Consumers A and B are unable to access Ready-Made Environments A and B and
Cloud Consumer C receives an error when submitting a request to create a new ready-made
environment.
After the maintenance outage is over, Cloud Consumers A and B encounter the following problems:
-Cloud Consumer A is unable to recover session data that was kept in memory for an extended
period, prior to the time of the outage. -Cloud Consumer B has no access to Virtual Server B, which
was moved to Hypervisor B during
the maintenance outage. When Cloud Consumer B attempts to ping Virtual Server B, the
request times out.
Even though Cloud Consumer C is able to log into the usage and administration portal to confirm
that its ready-made environment was successfully provisioned, the unexpected outage has raised
concerns about the stability of the ready-made environment's underlying infrastructure. Cloud
Consumer C informs the cloud provider that it cannot proceed with its lease of the ready-made
environment if there are future occurrences of this type of maintenance outage.
Which of the following statements can help address the problems and concerns of the three cloud
consumers?
A. A combination of the Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances and Synchronized Operating State
patterns can be applied to establish a system capable of deferring state across multiple cloud
storage devices, each located on a different virtual server. The Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern can
be applied to persist virtual server configuration data across hypervisors so that connectivity is
preserved whenever a virtual server is relocated to a different hypervisor. The Zero Downtime
pattern can be applied to ensure that none of the ready-made environments or virtual servers are
subject to a maintenance outage in the future.
B. The Elastic Disk Provisioning and Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering patterns can be applied to
establish a cloud architecture that supports a set of cloud storage devices, each with different tiers
that cloud consumers can choose to scale to The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be
applied in combination with the Hypervisor Clustering pattern to avoid further virtual server and
ready-made environment connectivity problems. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied so
that if a cloud storage device fails, a secondary implementation of the cloud storage device
automatically takes over processing tasks, thereby avoiding outages.
C. The Service State Management pattern can be appliedto establish a system that canpersist
session data in a database. The Persistent Virtual Network Configuration pattern can be applied to
centralize the configuration data necessary for virtual servers to remain accessible after they have
been relocated to different hypervisors. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied
to establish a system that allows cloud storage devices to be maintained without causing outages.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Cloud Sen/ice A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical
Server
A. Cloud Service B is hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Server C hosts Cloud Services C and D.
Virtual Server B and Virtual Server C are hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1). Cloud Service Consumer B accesses Cloud
Service A (2). Cloud Service Consumer C accesses Cloud Service A (3) and then accesses Cloud
Service B (4).
Cloud Service Consumers A, B and C simultaneously access Cloud Service A.
Cloud Service Consumer C receives a runtime exception and its request for access is rejected. It is
determined that Cloud Service Consumer C attempted to upload a large amount of input data for
Cloud Service A, which exceeded the bandwidth threshold of the virtual network. The cloud
architecture needs to be improved to avoid this from happening again.
Cloud Service Consumer C's repeated access of Cloud Service B imposes workloads that are large
and highly unpredictable. After some time, Cloud Service B begins to delay its responses and
sometimes times out entirely. The cloud resource administrator discovers that Virtual Server B is
unstable and close to failure primarily because its CPU and memory resources are being used to
their maximum capacity.
Cloud Services C and D are being positioned as SaaS products for use by a range of cloud consumer
organizations. After their initial release, they begin to quickly use up the available memory in Virtual
Server C, primarily because of the large amounts of state and session data they need to place into
memory for extended periods.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Elastic Network Capacity, Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, Service State Management
B. Elastic Resource Capacity, Service Load Balancing, Synchronized Operating State
C. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, Service State
Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A that resides on
Physical Server A.
Cloud Storage Device A is used to store media library data that is continuously replicated with a
redundant, secondary implementation of Cloud Storage A (not shown). Access to Cloud Service A is
monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor A.
Access to Cloud Storage Device A is monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B.
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B capture billing-related usage data that is forwarded to a billing
management system that is hosted by Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the usage data is captured by Pay-Per-Use
Monitor A (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Cloud Storage Device A via a usage and administration
portal that it uses to upload media data (2). This usage is captured by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B (3).
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B store collected usage data in the billing management system (4),
which is later used by the cloud provider to bill for the usage of Cloud Service A and Cloud Storage
Device A.
Each service instance of Cloud Service A requires a virtual server with 2 virtual CPUs and 4 GBs of
RAM at a package price of $2.00 for each initial invocation and an additional $0.50 for each
consecutive 60 seconds of usage. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A twice in one
day. The two exchanges with Cloud Service A last 60 seconds and 120 seconds. For that one day, the
organization that owns Cloud Service Consumer A is billed $6.50, which it determines is incorrect.
After complaining to the cloud provider, it is discovered that the rapid provisioning system
responsible for provisioning instances of Cloud Service A is not de-provisioning Cloud Service A
when Cloud Service Consumer A indicates it has completed an exchange. Instead, Cloud Service A is
de-provisioned after a 60 second timeout that occurs after Cloud Service Consumer A is completed
with an exchange.
Storage space on Cloud Storage Device A can only be purchased in units of terabytes (TBs), with
each TB costing $1 per day. Cloud Consumer B purchases 5 TBs of storage space on day 1 and stores
5 TBs of data on days 6 and 7. Cloud Consumer B was expecting to be billed $10.00, but is billed $35.
After raising a complaint, Cloud Consumer B is informed by the cloud provider that cloud consumers
are billed based on the allocation of storage space, regardless of how much storage space they
actually use.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can update the cloud architecture to
avoid these billing-related problems and discrepancies?
A. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied together with the Usage Monitoring pattern to
establish a monitoring and billing system capable of de-provisioning Cloud Service A instances when
they are no longer required. The Dynamic Data Normalization pattern can be applied to eliminate
any redundant data stored by Cloud Consumer A so that the amount of required storage space is
minimized.
B. The Platform Provisioning pattern can be applied to create an intelligent automation script
capable of immediately de-provisioning cloud service instances. The Redundant Storage pattern can
be applied to introduce a secondary cloud storage device for which storage space can be billed
based on actual usage.
C. The Self-Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable the organization that owns Cloud Service
Consumer B to configure how and to what extent Cloud Service A instances need to be provisioned.
The Resource Management pattern can be applied to establish a storage system that bills cloud
consumers for actual storage space usage only.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Cloud Storage Device A contains LUN A and can be accessed by external cloud consumers via a
proprietary user portal that is used primarily by cloud consumers to upload and manage data for
backup purposes. Pay-Per-Use Monitor A tracks the amount of data being uploaded and forwards
this information to a billing management system. Cloud Storage Device B is a secondary cloud
storage device. Data from Cloud Storage Device A is replicated synchronously to Cloud Storage
Device B using a storage replication program (not shown). Cloud Storage Device A is further
administered by a cloud resource administrator that works for the cloud provider, who accesses the
cloud storage device via an internal usage and administration portal.
Three different cloud consumers (Sarah. William, Matilda) access Cloud Storage Device A to upload
data for backup purposes (1). These three cloud consumers belong to different
departments within the same organization, and therefore all three share LUN A.
Pay-Per-Use Monitor A collects the storage space data and forwards it to the billing management
system (2).
The cloud provider offers premium and discount storage plans. With the premium plan, the data
stored on Cloud Storage Device A is also replicated to Cloud Storage Device B.
With the discount plan, the data stored on Cloud Storage Device A is not replicated. Both plans are
based on fixed-disk storage allocation. The cost of the premium plan is $5 per week for every GB of
storage space and the cost of the discount plan is $2 per week for every GB of storage space. The
SLA from the cloud provider guarantees availability of 97% for access to Cloud Storage Device A.
The three cloud consumers use Cloud Storage Device A as follows:
-Sara signs up for the discount backup plan and is allocated 50 GBs of storage space. A week later,
she uploads 10 GBs of backup data. A week after that, she uploads another 35 GBs. She later finds
out that for those two weeks her organization was billed $200, which is more than she was
expecting. After she complains to the cloud provider, she learns about how fixed-disk storage
allocation is billed. She asks the cloud provider to change her account to a different
storage plan where she is only billed for the actual amount of storage space she uses at any
given time. The cloud provider assures her that a new system will be set up to accommodate
this request.
-William is on the premium backup plan. He uploads 1 to 3 GBs of important business data every
day. After two weeks of daily uploads, he realizes that the centralized nature of the backup data on
the cloud makes it more convenient for reporting purposes than the distributed nature of the same
data in his on-premise environment. He uses an analysis tool to run queries against the cloud-based
data. However, due to the large quantity of redundant data, the queries end up being ineffective
and take too long to run. He asks the cloud provider to find a solution that can streamline the
cloud-based data by reducing redundancy. By reducing the overall quantity of the data, the analysis
queries will run faster.
-Matilda is on the discount backup plan and uploads backup data on a daily basis. Over the course
of two weeks she uploads over 200 GBs of data. She performs a daily backup at the end of each day
by identifying the data to back up and then using the proprietary user portal to run the cloud
backup procedure. This procedure can take 5 to 45 minutes, depending on the amount of data she
is uploading. Matilda performs this as her last task of the day and therefore initiates the procedure
before she leaves, but does not wait for it to complete. One day, she receives an e-mail from the
cloud provider explaining that the backup procedure from the previous day had failed due to an
unexpected hardware failure that occurred on Cloud Storage Device A.
The notification e-mail goes on to state that this type of failure falls within the 97% availability
guarantee of her organization's SLA, and is therefore in compliance with the current provisioning
agreement. Had a disaster occurred that night, the on-premise data could have been lost and
Matilda would be held accountable. Matilda contacts the cloud provider to demand that the
provisioning agreement be amended to upgrade their existing SLA to the maximum possible
availability (which, for this cloud provider, is 99.999%). The cloud provider agrees to establish a
system to accommodate this request.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to address the three issues
raised by the three cloud consumers?
A. Storage Workload Management, Elastic Disk Provisioning, Centralized Remote Administration
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, Dynamic Data Normalization, Zero Downtime
C. Storage Maintenance Window, Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery, Broad Access
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HIO-301
Nom d'Examen: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Security)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 This is a self-contained program that uses security flaws such as buffer overflow to remotely
compromise a system and then replicate itself to that system. Identify this program (threat):
A. Trojan horse
B. Trapdoor
C. Master book sector virus
D. Cracker
E. Worm
Answer: E

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NO.2 A required implementation specification of the contingency plan standard is:
A. Chain of Trust Agreement
B. Applications and Data Criticality Analysis
C. Security Training
D. Disaster Recovery Plan
E. Internal Audit
Answer: D

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NO.3 The objective of this implementation specification is to conduct an accurate and thorough assessment
of the potential vulnerabilities to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic protected health
information held by the covered entity.?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Network Management Policy
C. Security Policy
D. Access Controls
E. Audit Controls
Answer: A

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NO.4 This is a documented and routinely updated plan to create and maintain, for a specific period of time,
retrievable copies of information:
A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Facility Backup Plan
D. Security Plan
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Security Incident Procedures standard includes this implementation specification:
A. Prevention Procedures
B. Alarm Device
C. Threat Analysis Procedures
D. Detection Procedures
E. Response and Reporting
Answer: E

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NO.6 This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B

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NO.7 This is a program that is a type of malicious code. It is unauthorized code that is contained within a
legitimate program and performs functions unknown to the user.
A. Trojan horse
B. Distributed Denial of Service
C. Stealth virus
D. Polymorphic virus
E. Denial of Service
Answer: A

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NO.8 Documented instructions for responding to and reporting security violations are referred to as:
A. Business Associate agreement
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Non-repudiation
D. Sanction Policy
E. Risk Management
Answer: B

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NO.9 This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication
C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.10 This standard requires that the entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it
exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data.
A. Business Associate Contracts and Other Arrangements
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Chain of Trust Contract
D. Trading Partner Agreement
E. Assigned security responsibility
Answer: A

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NO.11 Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.12 The HIPAA security standards are designed to be comprehensive, technology neutral and:
A. Based on NIST specifications
B. Based on ISO specifications
C. Reasonable
D. Scalable
E. Implementable
Answer: D

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NO.13 Risk Management is a required implementation specification of this standard:
A. Security Incident Procedures
B. Technical Safeguards
C. Security Management Process
D. Information Access Management
E. Security Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.14 This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E

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NO.15 The Security Management Process standard includes this implementation specification: A. Risk
Reduction Policy
B. Audit Control
C. Risk Management
D. Detection Procedures
E. Training
Answer: C

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NO.16 The objective of this standard is to perform a periodic review in response to environmental or
operational changes affecting the security of electronic protected health information.
A. Security Management Process
B. Integrity
C. Audit Controls
D. Evaluation
E. Transmission Security
Answer: D

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NO.17 This addressable implementation specification is about procedures for ° ove r see i n ¡± w orkfor c
members that work with electronic protected health information or in locations where it might be
accessed.
A. Risk Management
B. Sanction Policy
C. Authorization and/or Supervision
D. Unique User Identification
E. Integrity Controls
Answer: C

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NO.18 The Contingency Plan standard includes this addressable implementation specification:
A. Access Authorization Procedure
B. Testing and Revision Procedures
C. Virus Protection Plan Procedure
D. Sanctions Policy and Procedure
E. Authentication Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.19 An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
Answer: D

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NO.20 ° E va l ua ti o ¡± is a st and ard w i thin
A. Administrative Safeguards
B. Physical Safeguards
C. Technical Safeguards
D. Privacy Safeguards
E. Electronic Signatures
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: GSEC
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Security Essentials Certification)
Questions et réponses: 280 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following devices connects two segments of the same local area network (LAN) but keeps
traffic separate on the two segments?
A. Hub
B. Modem
C. Bridge
D. Switch
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following frequencies are used by wireless standard 802.11n to operate? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 1 Ghz
B. 2 Ghz
C. 2.4 Ghz
D. 5 Ghz
Answer: C, D

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NO.3 You have a customer who wants to put wireless internet in his remote cabin. The cabin is many miles
from any other building with internet connectivity or access points. What should you recommend?
A. DSL
B. FIOS connection
C. Satellite internet
D. Microwave connection
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have been hired by the company to upgrade its existing Windows NT 4.0 network to a Windows
2000 based network. In the past, the company's support group has faced difficult time because users
changed the configuration of their workstations. Which of the following features of the Active Directory
would best justify the move to the Windows 2000 network.?
A. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS)
B. Organizational unit (OU)
C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
D. Group policy object (GPO)
Answer: D

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NO.5 You work as a Linux Technician for Tech Perfect Inc. You want to protect your server from intruders
who exploit services that are started with TCP Wrappers. Which of the following files will help you protect
the server?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. httpd.conf
B. lilo.conf
C. hosts.deny
D. hosts.allow
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 Which of the following enables an inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his
invention?
A. Patent
B. Artistic license
C. Phishing
D. Spam
Answer: A

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NO.7 Rick works as a Network Administrator. He is configuring the systems for maximum security. Before
using the security template, he wants to edit it to change some of the security settings that are not
required for now. Which of the following tools will he choose, to edit the security template?
A. Group Policy MMC snap-in
B. Security Configuration and Analysis MMC snap-in
C. Security Templates MMC snap-in
D. SECEDIT utility
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following terms describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability
and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which
they are executed?
A. Application virtualization
B. Encapsulation
C. System hardening
D. Failover
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following terms refers to manual assignment of IP addresses to computers and devices?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Spoofing
C. APIPA
D. Dynamic IP addressing
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following directories contains the log files in Linux?
A. /log
B. /root
C. /var/log
D. /etc
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the maximum cable segment length supported by a 10BaseT network?
A. 100 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 250 meters
D. 500 meters
E. 150 meters
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in
an IP multicast group?
A. IGMP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: A

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NO.13 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 domain-
based network. The company has two offices in different cities. The offices are connected through the
Internet. Both offices have a Windows 2003 server named SERV1 and SERV2 respectively. Mark is
required to create a secure connection between both offices. He configures a VPN connection between
the offices using the two servers. He uses L2TP for VPN and also configures an IPSec tunnel. Which of
the following will he achieve with this configuration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Encryption for the local files stored on the two servers
B. Highest possible encryption for traffic between the offices
C. Mutual authentication between the two servers
D. Extra bandwidth on the Internet connection
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements about the availability concept of Information security management is
true?
A. It ensures reliable and timely access to resources.
B. It determines actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system.
C. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.
D. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following terms is synonymous with the willful destruction of another person's property?
A. Spoofing
B. Hacking
C. Phishing
D. Vandalism
Answer: D

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NO.16 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He executes the following
command in the terminal:
echo $USER, $UID
Which of the following will be displayed as the correct output of the above command?
A. root, 500
B. root, 0
C. John, 502
D. John, 0
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following statements regarding Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) are true? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SSL provides message integrity to prevent alteration to the message.
B. During SSL session, information is encrypted to prevent unauthorized disclosure.
C. SSL can process credit cards.
D. SSL can support 128-bit encryption.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Which of the following statements are true about satellite broadband Internet access? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is among the least expensive way of gaining broadband Internet access.
B. It is among the most expensive way of gaining broadband Internet access.
C. This type of internet access has low latency compared to other broadband services.
D. This type of internet access has high latency compared to other broadband services.
Answer: B, D

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NO.19 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect World Inc. You are configuring a network that will
include 1000BaseT network interface cards in servers and client computers. What is the maximum
segment length that a 1000BaseT network supports?
A. 100 meters
B. 480 meters
C. 1000 meters
D. 10 meters
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following ports is the default port for IMAP4 protocol?
A. TCP port 443
B. TCP port 143
C. TCP port 25
D. TCP port 80
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following statements about service pack are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product.
B. It is a medium by which product updates are distributed.
C. It is a term generally related to security problems in a software.
D. It is a term used for securing an operating system.
Answer: A,B

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NO.22 Which of the following is NOT the feature of SELinux in the Red Hat enterprise Linux?
A. SELinux does not provide Kernel-level security.
B. All process and files have a context.
C. SELinux implements Mandatory Access Control (MAC) security in Red Hat Enterprise Linux.
D. SELinux applies to all users, including root.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which of the following is not an encryption technology?
A. Blowfish
B. KILL
C. 3DES
D. MD5
Answer: B

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NO.24 The /cat/etc/passwd file on a client computer contains the following entry: Martha:x:::::bin/false
Which of the following is true for Martha?
A. Martha's password is x.
B. Martha has full access on the computer.
C. Martha has limited access on the computer.
D. Martha has been denied access on the computer.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following is a security threat if included in the search path of a computer?
A. /usr
B. /sbin
C. .
D. /usr/bin
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which of the following records is the first entry in a DNS database file?
A. SOA
B. SRV
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following is used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound traffic on a
network?
A. Cookies
B. Sam Spade
C. NIDS
D. ACL
Answer: D

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NO.28 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You have configured a VPN server for remote users to connect to the company's network. Which of the
following encryption types will Linux use?
A. MSCHAP
B. RC2
C. 3DES
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.29 You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You
have created a script named lf.cgi. You want to provide the following permissions on it:
rwsr-sr-- Which of the following commands will you execute?
A. chmod 2754
B. chmod 6754
C. chmod 7754
D. chmod 4754
Answer: B

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NO.30 You want to temporarily change your primary group to another group of which you are a member. In
this process, a new shell will be created, and when you exit the shell, your previous group will be
reinstated. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. newgrp
B. chgrp
C. chown
D. chmod
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: GSSP-NET
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC GIAC Secure Software Programmer - C#.NET )
Questions et réponses: 491 Q&As

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NO.1 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework
3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code segments will
you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error.htm">
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode="Off">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode="Off" defaultRedirect="Error.htm"> <error statusCode="404"
redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
Answer: A

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NO.2 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to validate the
phone number passed to a class as a parameter in the application. Which of the following is the most
effective way to verify that the format of the data matches a phone number.?
A. Regular expressions
B. Nested If statements
C. Use the String.Length property
D. A try/catch block
Answer: A

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NO.3 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework
3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos should be
accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can be easily
maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored on a SQL server
database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that
will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that
only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the
employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database
named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the
following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
Answer: A

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NO.5 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently
finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only
for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the
computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
Answer: B

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NO.6 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application
using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to
complete a particular action, the following error message comes out:
Unable to find assembly 'myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral,
PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95'.
You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced
component that was registered by using the following command:
regsvcs.exe myservices.dll
You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no
exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications fold er.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code
access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access
security policies from a batch file?
A. Tlbimp.exe
B. GacUtil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Caspol.exe
E. StoreAdm.exe
Answer: D

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NO.8 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an
application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company.
You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following
code in the application:
String s1 = "C rtify";
String s2 = "c rtify";
String s3 = "c rtify";
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore
case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
Answer: A

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NO.9 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5.
You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal information. You add a
DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of users. The default item that the
DropDownList control displays is the "Select Country" option. You have to ensure that users select a
country other than the default option. Which of the following validation controls should you use to
accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
Answer: B

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NO.10 Andrew works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. The company's network has a Web server
that hosts the company's Web site. Andrew wants to enhance the security of the Web site by
implementing Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Which of the following types of encryption does SSL use?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Symmetric
B. Secret
C. IPSec
D. Asymmetric
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the code shown
below.
string str1 = "ABC";
string str2 = "u";
str2 += "Certify";
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False False False
B. False True False
C. True True True
D. True False True
Answer: D

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NO.12 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists of three
Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the following
requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the following
configurations will you use?
A. <sessionState mode="StateServer"/>
B. <sessionState mode="InProc"/>
C. <sessionState mode="Custom"/>
D. <sessionState mode="SQLServer"/>
Answer: D

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NO.13 Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its
application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt
all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D

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NO.14 In .NET Framework 3.5, you can create and access values that persist from one application session to
another. What are these values called?
A. Objects
B. Settings
C. Properties
D. Attributes
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following techniques is used to transmit passwords during authentication?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Salted Hash
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: C

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NO.16 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application
development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to
open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust
permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections:
SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open
the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the
following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D

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NO.17 Session variables can be any valid __________.
A. .NET Framework type
B. Integer type
C. SessionStateItemCollection object
D. Object type
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following session and instancing modes will you set if you require a sessionfull binding
and want to create a new instance object for each client request?
A. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerSession.
B. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to Single.
C. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
D. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You can use LINQ in an ASP.NET application through the LinqDataSource control, the __________
control, or by creating LINQ queries.
A. ADO.NET DataSet
B. ObjectDataSource
C. SqlDataSource
D. XmlDataSource
Answer: B

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NO.20 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle events
throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to inspect incoming
and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What will be the correct order to
create the HTTP module?
A.
Answer: A

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