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Code d'Examen: JN0-541
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (IDP, Associate(JNCIA-IDP))
Questions et réponses: 230 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about packet capture in the IDP sensor?
A. The Log Viewer has no indication of whether a log message has associated packet captures.
B. You can only log packets after an attack packet.
C. You can configure a particular number of packets to capture before and after an attack.
D. Packet capture records all packets flowing through the sensor.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three fields in a packet must match an IDP rule before that packet is examined for an attack?
(Choose three.)
A. terminate match
B. service
C. destination address
D. source address
E. attack object
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 You update your attack object database on Security Manager. What must you do before the new attack
objects become active on the IDP sensors?
A. You install the updated security policy on the IDP sensor.
B. No changes are required.
C. You must restart the IDP sensor.
D. You must restart the IDP processes on the IDP sensors.
Answer: A

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NO.4 After you enable alerts for new hosts that are detected by the Enterprise Security Profiler, where do you
look in Security Manager to see those alerts?
A. Security Monitor > Profiler > Application Profiler tab
B. Security Monitor > Profiler > Violation Viewer tab
C. Security Monitor > Profiler > Network Profiler tab
D. Log Viewer > Profiler Log
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement is true regarding IDP rule matching on a sensor?
A. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further.
B. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
C. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further.
D. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Exhibit:
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, which SYN
protector mode is the IDP using?
A. passive
B. handshake
C. relay
D. protective
Answer: A

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NO.7 On a sensor, which command will indicate if log messages are being sent to Security Manager.?
A. scio vr list
B. serviceidp status
C. scio agentstats display
D. scio getsystem
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is one use of an IP action?
A. It blocks subsequent connections from specific IP addresses.
B. It modifies the IP header to redirect the attack.
C. It modifies the IP header to prevent the attack.
D. It permits or denies the traffic, based on the IP header.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which rule base would detect netcat?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which OSI layer(s) of a packet does the IDP sensor examine?
A. layers 2-7
B. layers 2-4
C. layer 7 only
D. layers 4-7
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which rule base would detect the use of nmap on a network?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statement about the Enterprise Security Profiler (ESP) is true?
A. The ESP must be configured and started using the IDP sensor CLI before it is used.
B. The administrator must manually initiate Security Manager to sensor polling to retrieve ESP data.
C. The ESP must be configured and started on each IDP sensor manually, using the Security Manager
GUI.
D. The ESP is started by default in IDP version 4.0 or newer.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is "a deviation from a protocol's expected behavior or packet format"?
A. context
B. compound attack object
C. attack signature
D. protocol anomaly
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which TCP port is used for communication between Security Manager and an IDP sensor?
A. 7801
B. 7800
C. 7803
D. 443
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two will change the management IP of an IDP sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the existing IDP sensor object in Security Manager GUI and change the IP address.
B. Delete the IDP sensor object from Security Manager and re-add the sensor with the new IP address.
C. Useifconfig to change the management IP address.
D. Use the ACM to change the management IP address.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 When connecting to a sensor using SSH, which account do you use to login?
A. admin
B. super
C. netscreen
D. root
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which statement is true about the attack object database update process?
A. Each sensor updates its own attack object database automatically; however they must be able to
access the Juniper site on TCP port 443.
B. The attack object database update must be manually performed by the administrator, and the
administrator must manually install it on each sensor.
C. The attack object database update can be initiated manually or automatically.
D. The attack object database update can be automatically scheduled to occur using the Security
Manager GUI.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which command on the IDP sensor CLI can be used to display the sensor statistics, which policy is
installed, and mode of sensor deployment?
A. sctop "s" option
B. sensor statistics can only be displayed from Security Manager GUI
C. scio list s0 sensor stat
D. scio sensor stat
Answer: A

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NO.19 A newly re-imaged sensor is running IDP 4.0 code. You want to assign IP address
10.1.1.1 to the sensor. Which method do you use to do this?
A. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as root, and answer theEasyConfig
B. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as root, and run ipconfig.
C. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as admin, and answer theEasyConfig
D. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as admin, and run ipconfig.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which type of cable do you use for a console connection to an IDP sensor?
A. CAT 5 cable
B. Juniper proprietary cable
C. straight-through serial cable
D. null-modem cable
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JN0-140
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-AC) 140 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has a mix of employees and contractors. Contractor usernames always begin with
"con-"; employee usernames never begin with "con-". You need to give employees access to all
resources and give contractors access to a limited set of resources. Employee and contractor roles have
been created with the appropriate access privileges, and the realm is set to merge settings for all
assigned roles. Which role mapping ruleset would result in the correct access privileges being assigned?
A. username="*" -> Employee-role Stop username="con-*" -> Contractor-role
B. username="*" -> Employee-role username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop
C. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop username="*" -> Employee-role
D. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role username="*" -> Employee-role Stop
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the primary purpose of creating a Location Group Policy?
A. to associate more than one realm with an authentication server
B. to logically group network access devices and associate them with specific sign-in policies C. to allow
or prevent users from accessing resources in specific locations on the network
D. to define the URL that users of network access devices can use to access the Infranet Controller
Answer: B

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NO.3 What must be updated regularly to detect the newest versions of personal firewalls on endpoints?
A. Infranet Enforcer firmware
B. Infranet Controller rollback software
C. Host Security Assessment Plug-in (HSAP)
D. Endpoint Security Assessment Plug-in (ESAP)
Answer: D

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NO.4 What happens when Host Checker is configured to perform checks every "0" minutes?
A. Host Checker is disabled.
B. Host Checker will perform continous checks.
C. Host Checker will perform checks when user logs out.
D. Host Checker will perform checks when user first logs in.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When the Infranet Enforcer is set up in transparent mode, which additional resource policy must be
configured to use OAC for IPsec enforcement?
A. IPsec Routing
B. Access Control
C. IP Address Pool
D. Source Interface
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is correct about defining an Infranet Enforcer for use as a RADIUS Client?
A. You do not need to configure a RADIUS client policy.
B. You must know the exact model number of the Infranet Enforcer.
C. You must specify the NACN password of the device in the RADIUS client policy.
D. You do not need to designate a location group to which the Infranet Enforcer will belong.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two methods of authentication are used by the Infranet Controller for IPSec enforcement?
(Choose two.)
A. dial-up VPN
B. IKE authentication
C. XAuth authentication
D. shared IKE authentication
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Which interface does the Infranet Controller use to push the configuration?
A. trusted port
B. internal port
C. trust interface
D. untrust interface
Answer: B

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NO.9 If Host Checker restrictions are applied at the role level and the "Allow access to the role if any ONE of
the select policies is passed" option is unchecked, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All roles are evaluated together.
B. Each role is evaluated separately.
C. Clients must pass all policies to access the role.
D. Clients will pass as long as one policy is accepted.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which additional configuration must be completed when setting up role restrictions using certificates?
A. Set up a certificate authentication server.
B. Configure the authentication realm to remember certificate information.
C. Configure the authentication realm to use a certificate server for authentication.
D. Configure a role mapping rule requiring certification information to map user to role.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which configuration option can be set either in the initial console menu or the Admin UI of the Infranet
Controller?
A. VLAN ID
B. Hostname
C. Domain name
D. Administrative timeout
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is true about the operation of the Infranet Enforcer?
A. It assigns users a set of roles.
B. It allows access based on auth table entries.
C. It verifies whether an endpoint meets security requirements.
D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about applying Host Checker at the realm level? (Choose two.)
A. If Evaluate is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
B. If Evaluate is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
C. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
D. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Which action is optional when adding an authentication realm for use on an Infranet Controller?
A. Modify sign-in policy.
B. Configure role mapping.
C. Assign authentication server.
D. Configure authentication policy.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer has installed UAC in their network. They have both Windows and Linux endpoints and
must choose a deployment method that everyone can use. Which deployment method allows for multiple
platforms?
A. IPsec enforcement
B. 802.1X enforcement
C. Source IP enforcement
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two actions are required to configure an Infranet Enforcer to communicate with an Infranet
Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SSH.
B. Configure DNS.
C. Enable route mode.
D. Set certificate validation options.
Answer: AD

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NO.17 Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check
server connectivity?
A. Events log
B. System log
C. User Access log
D. Admin Access log
Answer: A

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NO.18 On a pre-existing OAC, which three options can the Infranet Controller overwrite when the user
accesses the Infranet Controller? (Choose three.)
A. SSID
B. login name
C. MAC address
D. wired adapters
E. encryption method
Answer: ADE

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NO.19 Which three statements about dynamic filtering are true? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic filtering creates a query statement.
B. Dynamic filtering has an option to save query.
C. Dynamic filtering can select any log field to filter.
D. Dynamic filtering permanently removes other log entries.
E. Dynamic filtering redraws the log when you select a variable link.
Answer: ABE

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NO.20 What will serve as a RADIUS Client to the Infranet Controller for 802.1x authentication?
A. an ACE server
B. a wireless network
C. an Ethernet switch
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-570
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (JN0-570 JNCIS-SSL EXAM)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three proxy scenarios are supported by Network Connect when split tunneling is enabled?
(Choose three.)
A. Explicit proxy to get to the IVE device
B. Support for a Winsock proxy client
C. Explicit proxy to get to internal applications
D. PAC file to get to internal applications
E. Automatic setting detection is configured in the client's browser
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Which three logs are used within the SA solution? (Choose three.)
A. Event log
B. System log
C. Client-Side log
D. User Access log
E. Security log
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Which three configuration data items can you export with the XML Export function? (Choose three.)
A. User role mapping rules
B. Policy tracing sessions
C. Local users accounts
D. Delegated administrator roles
E. IDP sensors
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 Which two statements about OCSP are true? (Choose two.)
A. The IVE device is an OCSP client.
B. OCSP requires the configuration of a CDP server.
C. OCSP requires the use of SSL to secure certificate validation.
D. OCSP provides real-time certificate verification.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 What should you do when you need to create a meeting on demand to troubleshoot a client issue.?
A. Schedule an on demand meeting that begins in 10 minutes.
B. Schedule an instant meeting through Secure Meeting.
C. Start up a support meeting.
D. Start a secure meeting through the Microsoft Outlook plug-in.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three statements are true regarding split-tunneling modes? (Choose three.)
A. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling with route change monitor" allows Network Connect to update the
routing table if a route change is detected.
B. Choosing "Disable Split Tunneling" forces all traffic through the Network Connect tunnel.
C. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling" will modify routes on the client so that any networks defined in the
split-tunneling policy are routed through Network Connect.
D. Choosing "Allow access to local subnet" will not modify the route table on the local client.
E. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling with allowed access to local subnet" requires that local resources be
defined in the Network Connect access control list.
Answer: BCE

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NO.7 Which Single Sign-On (SSO) policy relies on the IVE domain name?
A. SAML
B. Headers/Cookies
C. Form POST
D. Basic Auth/NTLM
Answer: D

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NO.8 When conducting meetings with Secure Meeting, your users frequently complain about jitter in the video
presentation. How might you attempt to improve performance?
A. Ensure that image compression is enabled on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration page.
B. Limit the presentation video size to 800x600 resolution on the IVE device's Secure Meeting
configuration page.
C. Enable the Secure Meeting acceleration feature with the optional license upgrade.
D. Ensure that 32-bit presentations mode is not enabled on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration
page.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three variables can be used for a username in a custom expression? (Choose three.)
A. Username
B. Username1
C. Username2
D. Username[1]
E. Username[2]
Answer: ADE

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NO.10 Which custom expression would allow users to login only during business hours (8:00AM to 5:00PM,
Monday through Friday)?
A. (loginTime.day = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime = (8:00AM - 5:00PM))
B. (loginTime.dayofWeek = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime in (8:00AM - 5:00PM))
C. (loginTime.dayofWeek = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime = (08:00 - 17:00))
D. (loginTime.Weekday = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime in (08:00 - 17:00))
Answer: C

Juniper   certification JN0-570   JN0-570

NO.11 What does Cache Cleaner remove by default?
A. All content downloaded through the IVE Content Intermediation Engine during the user's IVE session
B. The files in the user's Recycle Bin and the Recent Documents list at the end of the user session
C. All temporary files created during the user's IVE session
D. Any AutoComplete usernames or passwords used during the user's IVE session
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement accurately describes resource profiles?
A. Resource profiles are a collection of resources and ACLs.
B. Resource profiles are where ACLs are set up for resources.
C. Resource profiles are a collection of resources and their descriptions.
D. Resource profiles are where the resources, roles, and ACLs are in one location.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have just finished creating an IVS on your device. You can log in to your IVS but you cannot
access any backend resources. What should you troubleshoot first?
A. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct virtual IP.
B. Verify that you have allocated enough users for your IVS.
C. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct VLAN.
D. Verify that you are not blocked because of an untrusted certificate on the IVS.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
A user browses to https://partners.acmegizmo.com.
Referring to the exhibit, which authentication realm will be available to the user?
A. Users
B. LDAP Realm
C. ALL
D. Users and LDAP Realm
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-570 examen   JN0-570

NO.15 Your company is rolling out Secure Meeting to assist the helpdesk in troubleshooting desktop issues.
Which type of meeting should you enable on the SSL VPN?
A. Scheduled meeting
B. Technical meeting
C. Support meeting
D. Instant meeting
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which ActiveX parameter rewrite option does the IVE support?
A. Rewrite hostname and port
B. Rewrite ClassID
C. Rewrite cookies and headers
D. Rewrite URL
Answer: D

Juniper   certification JN0-570   JN0-570

NO.17 Which three statements are correct when configuring delegated administrator access? (Choose three.)
A. Modify an existing admin URL.
B. Create a new user role.
C. Modify role mapping rules.
D. Specify role restrictions.
E. Select "delegated access" at the role level.
Answer: ACD

Juniper   JN0-570 examen   certification JN0-570

NO.18 Which two are valid options for using CRLs to validate a user's certificate? (Choose two.)
A. Use LDAP to access the CDP.
B. Use the CDP specified in the CA certificate.
C. Use the CDP specified in the user certificate.
D. Use OCSP to access the CDP.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which two are valid regarding the deployment of an active/active cluster? (Choose two.)
A. It allows you to keep configurations synchronized.
B. An external load balancing system is required.
C. It can be used to scale the total number of licensed users.
D. A virtual IP address must be configured on only one device.
Answer: AB

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NO.20 Which statement about CRLs is true?
A. CRLs are distributed automatically by the CA.
B. CDP can be used to automatically validate a CRL.
C. The base CRL contains only a subset of the certificates issued by a given CA.
D. CRLs contain the serial number, revocation date, and reason code for withdrawn certificates.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JN0-332
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 406 Q&As

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NO.1 Which zone is system-defined?
A. security
B. functional
C. junos-global
D. management
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement contains the correct parameters for a route-based IPsec VPN?
A. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal
{
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy
{
perfect-forward-secrecy
{
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel
{
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike
{
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
B. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal
{
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy
{
perfect-forward-secrecy
{
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel
{
interface st0.0;
ike
{
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
C. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal
{
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy
{
perfect-forward-secrecy
{
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel
{
bind-interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike
{
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
D. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal
{
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}policy ipsec1-policy
{
perfect-forward-secrecy
{
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel
{
bind-interface st0.0;
ike
{
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-332   JN0-332   JN0-332 examen

NO.3 You want to allow your device to establish OSPF adjacencies with a neighboring device connected to
interface ge-0/0/3.0. Interface ge-0/0/3.0 is a member of the HR zone.Under which configuration
hierarchy must you permit OSPF traffic?
A. [edit security policies from-zone HR to-zone HR]
B. [edit security zones functional-zone management protocols]
C. [edit security zones protocol-zone HR host-inbound-traffic]
D. [edit security zones security-zone HR host-inbound-traffic protocols]
Answer: D

Juniper examen   certification JN0-332   certification JN0-332

NO.4 Which configuration keyword ensures that all in-progress sessions are re-evaluated upon committing a
security policy change?
A. policy-rematch
B. policy-evaluate
C. rematch-policy
D. evaluate-policy
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-332   JN0-332   JN0-332

NO.5 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood.Which
configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood
{
icmp
{
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood
{
tcp
{
syn-flood
{
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
}
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood
{
udp
{
flood threshold 5000;
}
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood
{
limit-session
{
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
}
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-332 examen   JN0-332   JN0-332

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Your IKE SAs are up, but the IPsec SAs are not up.Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. One or more of the phase 2 proposals such as authentication algorithm, encryption algorithm do not
match.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. The proxy IDs do not match.
D. The IKE proposals do not match the IPsec proposals.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements regarding symmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: A,D

Juniper   JN0-332 examen   JN0-332 examen

NO.8 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPsec VPN secured by AH?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
System services SSH, Telnet, FTP, and HTTP are enabled on the SRX Series device.
Referring to the configuration shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A user can use SSH to interface ge-0/0/0.0 and ge-0/0/1.0.
B. A user can use FTP to interface ge-0/0/0.0 and ge-0/0/1.0.
C. A user can use SSH to interface ge-0/0/0.0.
D. A user can use SSH to interface ge-0/0/1.0.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which command do you use to display the status of an antivirus database update?
A. show security utm anti-virus status
B. show security anti-virus database status
C. show security utm anti-virus database
D. show security utm anti-virus update
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statements regarding external authentication servers for firewall user authentication are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Up to three external authentication server types can be used simultaneously.
B. Only one external authentication server type can be used simultaneously.
C. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server is unreachable, authentication is bypassed.
D. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server rejects the authentication request, authentication is rejected.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 A user wants to establish an HTTP session to a server behind an SRX device but is being pointed to
Web page on the SRX device for additional authentication.Which type of user authentication is
configured?
A. pass-through with Web redirect
B. WebAuth with HTTP redirect
C. WebAuth
D. pass-through
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, a new policy named DenyTelnet was created. You notice that Telnet traffic is still allowed.
Which statement will allow you to rearrange the policies for the DenyTelnet policy to be evaluated before
your Allow policy?
A. insert security policies from-zone A to-zone B policy DenyTelnet before policy Allow
B. set security policies from-zone B to-zone A policy DenyTelnet before policy Allow
C. insert security policies from-zone A to-zone B policy DenyTelnet after policy Allow
D. set security policies from-zone B to-zone A policy Allow after policy DenyTelnet
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-332   JN0-332 examen   JN0-332

NO.14 Which type of Web filtering by default builds a cache of server actions associated with each URL it has
checked?
A. Websense Redirect Web filtering
B. integrated Web filtering
C. local Web filtering
D. enhanced Web filtering
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which security or functional zone name has special significance to the Junos OS?
A. self
B. trust
C. untrust
D. junos-global
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two statements are true about hierarchical architecture? (Choose two.)
A. You can assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
B. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
C. You can assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
D. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Which three statements are true regarding IDP? (Choose three.)
A. IDP cannot be used in conjunction with other Junos security features such as SCREEN options, zones,
and security policy.
B. IDP inspects traffic up to the Application Layer.
C. IDP searches the data stream for specific attack patterns.
D. IDP inspects traffic up to the Presentation Layer.
E. IDP can drop packets, close sessions, prevent future sessions, and log attacks for review by network
administrators when an attack is detected.
Answer: B,C,E

Juniper   JN0-332   JN0-332

NO.18 Which UTM feature requires a license to function?
A. integrated Web filtering
B. local Web filtering
C. redirect Web filtering
D. content filtering
Answer: A

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
You need to alter the security policy shown in the exhibit to send matching traffic to an IPsec VPN tunnel.
Which command causes traffic to be sent through an IPsec VPN named remote-vpn.?
A. [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone untrust]
user@host# set policy tunnel-traffic then tunnel remote-vpn
B. [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone untrust]
user@host# set policy tunnel-traffic then tunnel ipsec-vpn remote-vpn
C. [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone untrust]
user@host# set policy tunnel-traffic then permit ipsec-vpn remote-vpn
D. [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone untrust]
user@host# set policy tunnel-traffic then permit tunnel ipsec-vpn remote-vpn
Answer: D

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NO.20 Regarding content filtering, what are two pattern lists that can be configured in the Junos OS? (Choose
two.)
A. protocol list
B. MIME
C. block list
D. extension
Answer: B,D

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Nom d'Examen: Juniper (QFabric, Specialist (JNCIS-QF))
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Nom d'Examen: Juniper (DX, Specialist (JNCIS-DX))
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NO.1 Which security feature provides secure tunnels across a public network?
A. dynamic routing
B. Web filtering
C. IPsec
D. firewall filters
Answer: A

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NO.2 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. NVRAM
B. TFTP server
C. internal flash
D. PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the initial default username and password for all ScreenOS devices?
A. administrator/password
B. root/password
C. netscreen/netscreen
D. admin/netscreen1
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two devices run ScreenOS software? (Choose two.)
A. NetScreen-5200
B. NetScreen-5400
C. SRX240
D. MX480
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 A ScreenOS firewall has one interface in the user zone and one interface in the servers zone.
Both interfaces are addressed and active.
The configured policy allows user traffic from the user zone to the FTP server in the servers zone,
but the traffic does not cross the firewall from the client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A. The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B. The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP server's subnet.
D. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP client's subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a zone used for?
A. to bundle interfaces together for redundancy
B. to bundle interfaces sharing identical security requirements
C. to provide a tunneled connection across a network
D. to protect against spam attacks
Answer: D

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NO.7 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. ROM
B. NVRAM
C. TFTP server
D. Internal Flash
E. PCMCIA Card
Answer: D

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NO.8 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than
the first in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A. The second packet causes an ARP query.
B. The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C. The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D. The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.9 When is NAT used?
A. for Layer 2 switching
B. for MPLS VPNs
C. to translate between IP addresses
D. for secure tunnels
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-730 examen   JN0-730   JN0-730

NO.10 Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS is corrupted, from which location can an
image be loaded?
A. TFTP server
B. internal flash
C. PCMCIA card
D. Compact Flash Card
Answer: A

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NO.11 In the flow decision process, the system has found a route entry matching the packet
destination IP .
Which pair will identify the policy that is applied to this packet?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which operating system is used on a NetScreen device?
A. IOS
B. Junos
C. FreeBSD
D. ScreenOS
Answer: A

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NO.13 In the packet flow decision process, which pair identifies interzone traffic?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-730   JN0-730

NO.14 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A. Check its route table.
B. Check its session table.
C. Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D. Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS on a NS-204 is corrupted, from which two (2)
alternate locations can an image be loaded?
A. ROM
B. TFTP server
C. Internal Flash
D. PCMCIA Card
E. Compact Flash Card
Answer: B,E

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Code d'Examen: JN0-692
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching Support, Professional)
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 Your OSPF network includes an NSSA. Which LSA type is injected into the NSSA by the ASBR?
A. Type 3
B. Type 5
C. Type 7
D. Type 9
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-692 examen   JN0-692   JN0-692

NO.2 Your currently configured regular expression does not match the AS path shown below:
2135.55 55 55 55 3796
Which three regular expressions would match this path? (Choose three.)
A. "."2135"
B. "2135.*"
C. "* 55(1, 3) *"
D. "2135 55(5) 3796"
E. "2135 55(1, 2) 3796"
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 You recently added your autonomous system to an existing BGP confederation. You notice that
a route that had a local preference of 100 now has a local preference of 50. Which statement
explains the change?
A. BGP path attributes such as next hop, local preference, and MED are normally restricted to a
single AS but are allowed to propagate throughout the confederation's AS members.
B. The confederation has sub-ASs that require all IBGP routes to have a local preference of 50 or
below.
C. When your Junos devices joined the confederation, they lost IBGP connectivity to the route in
question; the local preference reverted to 50 once the BGP peering established.
D. The route is being shared through an EBGP peer, and the confederation is propagating the local
preference from the peer.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have recently added LDP-signaled VPLS to your network. The VPLS connections are
established and you have been asked to verify that the forwarding plane is working properly. Which
three commands would you use? (Choose three.)
A. ping mpls Idp <fec>
B. show vpls connections
C. traceroute mpls Idp <fec>
D. show vpls mac-table
E. show Idp statistics
Answer: A,C,D

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10. R1 and R2 are IS-IS Level 1 routers, but are not forming an adjacency.
Which two reasons would account for this happening? (Choose two.)
A. The remote router is configured for both IPv4 and IPv6.
B. The remote router does not have family iso enabled on its interface,
C. The remote router does not have family clns enabled on its interface.
D. The remote router is not configured to participate in the same Level 1 area
Answer: B,D

Juniper   JN0-692   JN0-692   JN0-692

NO.5 One of your router's OSPF adjacencies is down.
What are three reasons for this adjacency state change? (Choose Three)
A. A filter has just been configured on one of the OSPF routers.
B. The OSPF hello value is the same on both routers.
C. The controlling BFD session state has gone down.
D. The authentication key on both routers matches.
E. One of the physical interfaces has gone down.
Answer: A,C,E

certification Juniper   JN0-692   certification JN0-692

NO.6 You have applied a customized EXP rewrite rule on router R1 on the egress of the interface
connecting to router R2. You want to verify if it is working properly. Which two methods would you
use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Apply a rewrite rule on the ingress of R2 for packets coming in from R1 and count those packets
for the new EXP values with a firewall filter as they leave R2.
B. Use the traceroute utility.
C. Use an output filter on R1 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets going to R2.
D. Use an input firewall filter on R2 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets
coming from R1.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 You are asked to retain several routes from an external BGP neighbor in the routing table on
your local router, but you are not allowed to forward traffic to these destinations. You have
configured a forwarding table firewall filter to block these routes, and applied it under the (edit
forwarding-options] hierarchy, but the routes are still showing up in the forwarding table. What is
required to achieve this task?
A. Configure an EBGP import policy on your local router to block the routes.
B. Have the EBGP neighbor configure an export policy to block the routes.
C. Configure an export policy for the forwarding table to block the routes.
D. Use the no-install configuration statement within the EBGP neighbor group on your local router.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have recently implemented a new Layer 2 VPN and it is not establishing. The show I2vpn
connections command displays an out-of-range state.
What is causing this problem?
A. The local site ID value is too high for the label block.
B. The VRF target community values do not match between sites.
C. The VRF route distinguisher values do not match between sites.
D. The local site ID is not defined.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An OSPF neighbor between routers R1 and R2 is stuck in loading state on R2. What are two
causes? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF is not enabled on the interfaces.
B. A firewall filter is blocking OSPF hellos on both sides.
C. The R1 router has received a corrupted link-state request packet.
D. The interface MTU is mismatched between the routers.
Answer: C,D

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Code d'Examen: BH0-007
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following best describes a testing challenge of the
application domain of the routers described?
A.Testing that the receivers PC can store emails routed to it.
B.Testing that large organisations can scan incoming files routed to them for viruses.
C.Testing that packets are delivered by the routers in the required timescales.
D.Testing that files can be sent in any language.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Scenario 2 Your organisation is a large media services corporation (MSC). MSC uses Agile
development, within a Scrum framework. Here, the iterations are referred to as Sprints. For each Sprint, a
set of user-stories is defined, built, and tested. The user-stories are typically 1-2 lines long, indicating
what the customer wants the system to do. MSC is in the process of updating its website to meet the
recently introduced accessibility rules for websites. Accessibility means the availability of a system
suitable to members of the public with, for example, visual or hearing difficulties. It has been decided to
start with two requirements, as its first 2 Sprints: 1)Presentation of content with clear headings, short
sentences, text versions always available. 2)Consistent navigation through the website. You are the test
manager and there are four developers and two testers. You have all worked together previously, and are
very experienced in MSCs products. Although the accessibility rules are new to you and the team, you
have all attended a workshop where they were explained. Which of the following are product risks and
which are project risks? a.The navigation through some parts of the website may need to be different from
others. b.Sprint 1 may not be completed on time, leading to a delay to the start of Sprint 2. c.Text versions
of images may not always be possible. d.There may be a need to buy a capture-replay tool for regression
testing. e.A key member of the team may leave before the Sprints have been completed.
A.a, b and c are product risks, d and e are project risks.
B.a and c are products risks, b, d and e are project risks.
C.b, c and e are product risks, a and d are project risks.
D.a, d and e are product risks, b and c are project risks.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Scenario 1 A computerised system is being created to monitor the life support system on board a
submarine. It monitors air quality, water supplies and temperature. This system will be supplied and
maintained by SubsInc. SubsInc uses the V-model for software development and conducts four levels of
testing, from unit through to operational and site acceptance testing. Two key risks identified for the air
quality system are: 1. If the percentage of oxygen in the air falls too low, personnel may suffocate 2. If the
concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic. To address these risks,
the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements: R1)Oxygen must be
replaced as it is consumed. R2)Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air. These requirements must
be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents. You are a newly recruited
test manager. A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is
a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A.The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor
air temperatures.
B.SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C.Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D.Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. A serious issue has arisen with emails arriving at the wrong
destinations. This is an intermittent problem, and seems to occur only at peak loading times. Which of the
following reviews would you recommend to address this issue?
A.A walkthrough of the requirement specification, to check for errors.
B.A management review of defects logged and cleared to see if defects are being addressed correctly.
C.A technical review of the industry standard routing protocols to see if they have inaccuracies in them.
D.An inspection of the code for this part of the functionality to try to localise the defective parts of the code.
Answer:D

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NO.5 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following would be applicable as part of a test policy
for testing these types of systems? a.Systems must be tested for compliance to industry standard routing
protocols. b.Testing for the latest upgrade will require testing of increased network traffic of 100%.
c.Testing for the fix will require the use of dynamic analysis tools. d.Releases will not be made if systems
have any high priority defects outstanding.
A.a and b.
B.a and d.
C.b and c.
D.b and d.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-PM1
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Project Management)
Questions et réponses: 625 Q&As

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NO.1 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
Answer: A

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NO.3 A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the
situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your
chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status. How would you define this situation.?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

ISEB   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1

NO.6 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
Answer: C

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NO.8 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project
charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.15 A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
Answer: C

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NO.16 The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What
is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A

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NO.17 While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A

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NO.18 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

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