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Code d'Examen: S10-201

Nom d'Examen: SNIA (SNIA Storage Networking Management & Administration)

Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S10-300

Nom d'Examen: SNIA (Snia Storage Architect-Assessment,Planning and Design)

Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S10-100

Nom d'Examen: SNIA (Snia Storage Network Foundations Exam)

Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S10-101

Nom d'Examen: SNIA (Snia Storage Network Foundations Exam)

Questions et réponses: 163 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two disadvantages of using a parallel interface? (Choose two.)
A. as the bus length increases, the chance of skew increases
B. as the bus speed increases, the chance of skew increases
C. as the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus length decreases
D. as the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus queue depth increases
Answer: AB

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NO.2 What is the minimal iSCSI security level needed to protect against man-in-the-middle insertion,
modification or deletion?
A. none
B. encryption (IPsec)
C. Initiator and Target Authentication
D. digest for header and data integrity
Answer: D

SNIA   certification S10-100   S10-100   S10-100   S10-100

NO.3 Which protocol is used for backups on an ethernet based network?
A. FCIP
B. NDMP
C. iDMP
D. iSNS
Answer: B

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NO.4 A small Internet startup company needs to implement a backup solution in their environment. Cost is
a large concern, and performance is not as critical since their environment mainly sits idle during off hours.
If a backup is not completed successfully, the customer has little concern and is able to run new backups
at any time. Which solution meets the customer's requirements for providing a low-cost solution and
satisfies their current demand?
A. LAN-free backup
B. server-free backup
C. over-the-network backup
D. SAN without LAN-free backup
Answer: C

SNIA   S10-100   S10-100   S10-100   S10-100

NO.5 A company's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage subsystem
replaced with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are
incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration
B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test
C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test
D. Upgrade existing host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to
new host using NDMP.
Answer: A

SNIA examen   S10-100 examen   S10-100   S10-100

NO.6 A customer is implementing a disaster recovery plan to backup data to a remote location 200
kilometers from their production facility. Which proposal should they use?
A. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
B. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
C. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
D. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: BD

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NO.8 What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit
B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit
C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number
D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit
Answer: B

SNIA   S10-100   S10-100

NO.9 Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of
managing storage allocation?
A. host-based LVM
B. in-band appliance
C. out-of-band appliance
D. array-based LUN masking
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three standards are the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force? (Choose three.)
A. IEEE
B. SNMP
C. NDMP
D. Policy for QoS
E. IP over Fibre Channel
Answer: BDE

SNIA   certification S10-100   S10-100   S10-100 examen

NO.11 Which SMI-S related acronym describes an object-oriented description of the entities and relationships
in a business management environment, divided into core and common models?
A. CIM
B. SRM
C. DRM
D. DMTF
Answer: A

SNIA   S10-100   S10-100

NO.12 What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA
B. VSAN
C. ISL
D. VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two sub-components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (Choose two.)
A. file system
B. user interface
C. process scheduler
D. communication protocols
Answer: AD

certification SNIA   S10-100   certification S10-100   S10-100

NO.14 Which characteristic differentiates an IP Storage adapter from a traditional Network Interface Card
(NIC)?
A. link aggregation
B. 2 Gb/s data rate
C. larger frame size
D. TCP/IP segmentation offload
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which IP Storage protocol requires iSNS for discovery and management?
A. FCIP
B. SATA
C. iFCP
D. iSCSI
Answer: C

SNIA examen   certification S10-100   certification S10-100   S10-100

NO.16 Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU
interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS
B. FC-VI
C. FC-CT
D. FC-SW
Answer: B

SNIA   certification S10-100   certification S10-100   S10-100

NO.17 What is a shared communication infrastructure device to which nodes on a multi-point bus or loop are
physically connected?
A. hub
B. switch
C. gateway
D. managed switch
Answer: A

certification SNIA   S10-100 examen   S10-100 examen

NO.18 Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (Choose three)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center
B. Increase storage resource utilization
C. Decrease network traffic due to backups
D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization
Answer: ABC

SNIA examen   S10-100   S10-100

NO.19 What type of Fabric switch ports are joined to form an ISL?
A. F_Port to F_Port
B. N_Port to F_Port
C. E_Port to E_Port
D. NL_Port to E_Port
Answer: C

SNIA examen   S10-100   S10-100   S10-100   S10-100

NO.20 What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s
B. 200 MB/s
C. 300 MB/s
D. 400 MB/s
Answer: D

SNIA   S10-100   S10-100   S10-100   S10-100 examen   certification S10-100

SASInstitute meilleur examen A00-240 A00-281 A00-280 A00-270 A00-260, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A00-240

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Certified Statistical Business Analyst Using SAS 9: Regression and Modeling Credential)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A00-281

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Certified Clinical Trials Programmer Using SAS 9 Accelerated Version )

Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A00-280

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Certified Clinical Trials Programmer Using SAS 9)

Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A00-270

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS BI Content Development)

Questions et réponses: 64 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A00-260

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Data Integration Development)

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Assume that you have completed the Register Tables wizard in SAS Data Integration Studio. Which
statement is true?
A. The physical table(s) selectedare copied to the application server specified in the library.
B. The physical table(s) selectedare copied to the SAS Folders location specified in the wizard.
C. Metadata for the physical table(s) selected is stored on the application server specified in the library.
D. Metadata for the physical table(s) selected is stored in the SAS Folders location specified in the wizard.
Answer: D

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NO.2 SAS Data Integration Studio is dependent on which administration functions?
A. Setting up of SAS Information Map environment.
B. Setting up of SAS Web and SAS Portal environments.
C. Setting up of SAS Application Servers.
D. Setting up of SAS Libraries definitions.
Answer: C

SASInstitute   certification A00-260   A00-260

NO.3 You want to register an external file with the following structure: first line contains Customer First and
Last Name second line is address1 third line is address 2 fourth line contains the phone number What
action should you take to read this file?
A. Use the New User Written External File wizard.
B. Use the New Fixed Width External File wizard.
C. Use the New Delimited External File wizard.
D. Use the New COBOL Copybook wizard.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT defined as part of the New Library Wizard?
A. the type of library
B. the metadata name for the library
C. the location of the library
D. the metadata for the library tables
Answer: D

SASInstitute   A00-260   A00-260 examen   certification A00-260

NO.5 Which statement correctly defines a System DSN?
A. Not specific to an individual user. Anyone with permission to access the data source can use it.
B. Specific to an individual user. It is available only to the user who creates it.
C. Not specific to an individual user. It can be shared among users even though it is created locally.
D. Specific to an individual user. But it can be shared among users.
Answer: A

SASInstitute   A00-260 examen   A00-260

NO.6 The ability to deploy a SAS Data Integration Studio job as a Web service or a SAS Stored Process
requires additional set up that is performed in which client application?
A. SAS Data Integration Studio
B. SAS Enterprise Guide
C. SAS Job Deployment Studio
D. SAS Management Console
Answer: D

SASInstitute examen   A00-260   A00-260

NO.7 When writing postcode in the Precode and Postcode tab of the Transpose transformation in SAS Data
Integration Studio, which symbol allows you to reference the transformation output table regardless of the
actual physical name for that target table?
A. &syslast
B. syslast
C. &target
D. %target
Answer: A

SASInstitute   A00-260   certification A00-260

NO.8 In the following display, can status handling be enabled for both the Extract transformation and the Sort
transformation?
A. Yes. The Return Code Check transformation can be added to the job flow immediately following the
Sort transformation - the Status Handling tab in this Return Code Check transformation properties can
then establish the desired status handling for both the Extract and Sort transformations.
B. No. Both the Extract and the Sort transformations do not have a Status Handling tab in their
corresponding properties window, therefore it is not possible to establish status handling for these
transformations.
C. Yes. The Return Code Check transformation can be added to the job flow twice, once immediately
following the Extract, and again immediately following the Sort - the Status Handling tab in each of the
Return Code Check transformations properties can then establish the desired status handling.
D. Yes. The status handling tab in the job properties window will allow you to select which transformation
(or even several transformations) that you want to define status handling for.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Registering metadata for an ODBC data source involves registering:
A. a library that will use a SAS/ACCESS engine to a specific database
B. only an ODBC data source definition
C. a server definition that points to the ODBC data source and a library accessing this server definition
D. a table pointing directly to the ODBC data source
Answer: C

SASInstitute examen   certification A00-260   A00-260 examen

NO.10 Within SAS Data Integration Studio, which one of the following is NOT an option available from the
File-> New menu choice under External File grouping?
A. Delimited
B. Fixed Width
C. User Written
D. COBOL Copybook
Answer: D

SASInstitute examen   A00-260   A00-260 examen

Oracle meilleur examen 1Z0-033 1Z0-032 1Z0-031 1Z0-007 1Z0-046, questions et réponses

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Questions et réponses: 210 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-032

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle9l database:fundamentals ii)

Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-031

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle9i database:fundamentals i)

Questions et réponses: 172 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-007

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL)

Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-046

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g: Managing Oracle on Linux for DBAs)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.
You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of
different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?
A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))
B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))
C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))
D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address)
E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))
Answer: E

Oracle   certification 1Z0-007   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.2 What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)
A.You have too many tables.
B.Your tables are too long.
C.Your tables have difficult names.
D.You want to work on your own tables.
E.You want to use another schema's tables.
F.You have too many columns in your tables.
Answer: CE

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.3 You need to design a student registration database that contains several tables storing academic
information.
The STUDENTS table stores information about a student. The STUDENT_GRADES table stores
information about the student's grades. Both of the tables have a column named STUDENT_ID. The
STUDENT_ID column in the STUDENTS table is a primary key.
You need to create a foreign key on the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENT_GRADES table that
points to the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENTS table. Which statement creates the foreign key?
A.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk REFERENCES (student_id)
FOREIGN KEY students(student_id));
B.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
C.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
D.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which are iSQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about constraints? (Choose two.)
A.The UNIQUE constraint does not permit a null value for the column.
B.A UNIQUE index gets created for columns with PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints.
C.The PRIMARY KEY and FOREIGN KEY constraints create a UNIQUE index.
D.The NOT NULL constraint ensures that null values are not permitted for the column.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee. Which change must be made to the above
syntax to calculate the annual compensation as "monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied
by 12"?
A.No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.8 What does the FORCE option for creating a view do?
A.creates a view with constraints
B.creates a view even if the underlying parent table has constraints
C.creates a view in another schema even if you don't have privileges
D.creates a view regardless of whether or not the base tables exist
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.9 Which three statements correctly describe the functions and use of constraints? (Choose three.)
A.Constraints provide data independence.
B.Constraints make complex queries easy.
C.Constraints enforce rules at the view level.
D.Constraints enforce rules at the table level.
E.Constraints prevent the deletion of a table if there are dependencies.
F.Constraints prevent the deletion of an index if there are dependencies.
Answer: CDE

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NO.10 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.selection, projection, join
B.difference, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which SQL statement defines a FOREIGN KEY constraint on the DEPTNO column of the EMP table?
A.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk FOREIGN KEY deptno
REFERENCES dept deptno);
B.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2)
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
C.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno)
FOREIGN KEY (deptno));
D.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) FOREIGN KEY
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
Answer: B

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NO.12 A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1. Choose rows from a table.
2. Choose columns from a table.
3. Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A.difference, projection, join
B.selection, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: B

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NO.13 In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)
A.You want to create a nonequijoin.
B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.
Answer: CDE

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NO.14 Which SQL statement generates the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12?
A.SELECT ename, salary*12 'Annual Salary'
FROM employees;
B.SELECT ename, salary*12 "Annual Salary"
FROM employees;
C.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS Annual Salary
FROM employees;
D.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS INITCAP("ANNUAL SALARY")
FROM employees
Answer: B

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NO.15 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
You need to produce output that states "Dear Customer customer_name, ".
The customer_name data values come from the CUSTOMER_NAME column in the CUSTOMERS table.
Which statement produces this output?
A.SELECT dear customer, customer_name,
B.SELECT "Dear Customer", customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
C.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name ','
FROM customers;
D.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
E.SELECT "Dear Customer " || customer_name || ","
FROM customers;
F.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ',' ||
FROM customers;
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two are attributes of iSQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A.iSQL*Plus commands cannot be abbreviated.
B.iSQL*Plus commands are accessed from a browser.
C.iSQL*Plus commands are used to manipulate data in tables.
D.iSQL*Plus commands manipulate table definitions in the database.
E.iSQL*Plus is the Oracle proprietary interface for executing SQL statements.
Answer: BE

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NO.17 The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:
STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)
The registrar requested a report listing the students' grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest
grade point average to lowest.
Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by
the registrar?
A.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa ASC;
B.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;
C.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa;
D.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa;
E.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;
F.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa DESC;
Answer: F

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NO.18 Which view should a user query to display the columns associated with the constraints on a table
owned by the user?
A.USER_CONSTRAINTS
B.USER_OBJECTS
C.ALL_CONSTRAINTS
D.USER_CONS_COLUMNS
E.USER_COLUMNS
Answer: D

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which three subqueries work? (Choose three.)
A.SELECT *
FROM employees
where salary > (SELECT MIN(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
B.SELECT *
FROM employees
WHERE salary = (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
C.SELECT distinct department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
D.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
E.SELECT last_name
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT MAX(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
F.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY AVG(SALARY));
Answer: CDE

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NO.20 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.employee_id, (.15* e.salary) + (.5 * e.commission_pct)
+ (s.sales_amount * (.35 * e.bonus)) AS CALC_VALUE
FROM employees e, sales s
WHERE e.employee_id = s.emp_id;
What will happen if you remove all the parentheses from the calculation?
A.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be lower.
B.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be higher.
C.There will be no difference in the value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column.
D.An error will be reported.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is true when implementing human reactions that are part of composite applications using the
human task component in SOA 11g?
A. The human task configuration is stored in the task
metadata file.
B. The human task service uses an identity directory,such as LDAP,to determine people rules and
privileges.
C. The human task service engine executes all the human task components in SOA composite
application.
D. The human task is not available in standalone mode is always associated with BPEL process service
component.
E. The wordlist application can also be used to change the human task configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Oracle SOA suit 11g has two components, mediator and Oracle service bus. Both provide
transformation and validation functionality. Which two statements are true.
A. The mediator is an intra-composite component responsible for brokering communications between
components that make up a composite,enabling transformation,routing and payload validation inside the
component.
B. The mediator is stand alone component responsible for brokering communications between service
end points enabling transformation,routing and payload validation.
C. Oracle service bus is stand alone component responsible for brokering communicationsbetween
service endpoints enabling transformation,routing and pay load validation.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 The event delivery network is designed for handling asynchronous messaging arising from a business
event or service and supports ____________.
A. Request-response model.
B. Publish-subscribe declarative model.
C. Fire-forget model.
D. Request-reply model.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are about Oracle SOA suit 11g s BPEL component when using the entity?
A. Data operations such as loading and saving are performed automatically by thedata provider service
with outasking to code any service in vocation
B. Data operation such as explicitly loading and saving data are performed by the data base adapter in
Oracle BPEL process manager
C. Data in variables is in service data object form. (SDO)
D. Data in variable is in document object (DOM) form.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which two components can be found on SAO component palette of Oracle SOA component?
A. BPEL process
B. Partner link.
C. Human task.
D. ADF-BC.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Two types of services with transactional behavior that can be implemented in Oracle SOA suite 11g
database adapters and ____________ .
A. File adapters.
B. Service data objects.
C. SOAP Endpoints.
D. Active server objects
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are using Oracle jdeveloper 11g composite editor tool to build a composite application.
Which service lime will you use to define your interfaces to the composite?
A. Reference services lane.
B. Exposed services lane.
C. External services lane.
D. Internal services lane.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your Oracle SOA composite is running in production but due to new government mandate you have to
update the security policy based on Oracle web service manager. What are your options to update the
security policy?
A. Attach updated policy via the command line interface.
B. Attach updated policy in jdeveloper and redeploy component.
C. Attach policy in enterprise model console test it and reattach with out redeployment.
D. Attach policy via web logic admin console after deployment.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Identify the correct order in which the fault management framework attempts to identify a fault policy
binding?
BPEL process or Oracle mediator service component defined in the composite xml file.
SOA composite application defined in the composite XML file.
Reference binding component defined in the composite XML file.
A. 1,2,3
B. 3,1,2
C. 3,2,1
D. 1,3,2
Answer: B

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NO.10 Two types of services with transactional behavior that can be implemented in Oracle database adapters
and ____________ .
A. File adapters.
B. Service data objects.
C. SOAP Endpoints.
D. Active server objects.
Answer: B

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Explanation:

NO.11 Which two statements are true about proxy service in Oracle service bus (Oracle Service Bus)?
A. Proxy services are OSB definitions of enterprise services that exchange messages during businesses
processes and they do not have a pipeline
B. Proxy services are definitions of generic intermediary web services that are hosted locally on Oracle
service bus.
C. Proxy services can be configured using Oracle jdeveloper.
D. Message handling capabilities of proxy service are implemented with message flow definitions using a
pipeline.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Service component architecture (SCA) is set of specifications for ____________, ____________
and ____________.
A. Implementing applications based on reusability.
B. Implementing business applications using BBEL.
C. A programming model for building applications based on service on service oriented architecture.
D. Composition of services and creation of service components including the reuse of existing services.
E. Implementing procedural models to built software applications.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Which three components can be used to configure a human task?
A. Task management service.
B. Task routing service.
C. Data service.
D. Identity service.
E. Security service
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 What is the purpose of Oracle BPEL process manager dehydration store.?
A. The dehydration store is used to save all state information in a database to avoid showing down the
system due to too much IO.
B. The dehydration store is used to store the process state for long-running process which will allocate
memory to be given back to the system and will not consume resources while waiting.
C. The dehydration store is good way to preserve long running processes,and it prevents any location of
state or reliability if a system shut down
Answer: C

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NO.15 For business rules, a rules dictionary contains one or more definitions of: facts; constraints; functions;
rule sets. Identify the correct statement that defines the facts.
A. Has a collection of facts type,global variables constants function and rulesets.
B. Are declared as: if condition than action .
C. Have an action: assign,assert,call function (or javamethod)
D. Are data or business objects on which the rule engine evaluates the rule condition.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-451   1Z0-451

NO.16 Which these are valid methods to assign users, groups, and application rules during design time, to
tasks in a human workflow?
A. Assign users,groups,and application rules using XQuerry
B. Assign users,groups,and application rules using LDAP rules and privileges.
C. Assign users,groups,and application rules using business rules.
D. Assign users,groups,and application rules using Oracle Haley.
E. Assign users,groups,and application rules using a delimited string of users,groups,or application roles.
Answer: E

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NO.17 A BPL process uses to invokes to insert data into two Oracle database tables the first invokes inserts
data into master table and the second invokes insert data into detail table?
Identify the statement that will undo both transactions by throwing a fault if either one of the transaction
faults?
A. <throw name- throw
fault name bpebrsqlexception />
B. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxcrollback />
C. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxnuntime fault />
D. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxfault />
Answer: A

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NO.18 Oracle SOA suite 11g configured with the _____________ application that enables the composite
application components to send application?
A. Workload
B. User messaging service
C. Worklist
D. Workflow
Answer: C

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NO.19 Using the Oracle BPM worklist application, a user can do which three things.
A. Perform authorized actions on tasks.
B. Create personal tasks.
C. Define delegation rules.
D. Define user groups.
E. Define task routing policy.
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-451   1Z0-451 examen
Explanation:

NO.20 Human task service prevents tasks to users via which channels? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle BPM wordlist application.
B. Oracle forms based notification.
C. Actionable notification sent via sms.
D. Actionable notification sent via Email.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 }
and:
30. SubCalc sc = new SubCalc ();
31. System.out.println(sc.multiply(3,4));
32. System.out.println(SubCalc.multiply(2,2));
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 31.
B. The code runs with no output.
C. 12
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 22.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 21.
Answer: D

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15.Given:
12. NumberFormat nf = NumberFormat.getInstance();
13. nf.setMaximumFractionDigits(4);
14. nf.setMinimumFractionDigits(2);
15. String a = nf.format(3.1415926);
16. String b = nf.format(2);
Which two statements are true about the result if the default locale is Locale.US? (Choose two.)
A. The value of a is 3.1415.
B. The value of a is 3.14.
C. The value of a is 3.141.
D. The value of b is 2.
E. The value of b is 2.0000.
F. The value of a is 3.1416.
G. The value of b is 2.00.
Answer: F,G

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16.Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement is true about the two classes?
A. Compilation of class B will fail. Compilation of class A will succeed.
B. Compilation of class A will fail. Compilation of class B will succeed.
C. Compilation of both classes will fail.
D. Compilation of both classes will succeed.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854   1Z0-854
17.Given:
11. class ClassA {}
12. class ClassB extends ClassA {}
13. class ClassC extends ClassA {}
and:
21. ClassA p0 = new ClassA();
22. ClassB p1 = new ClassB();
23. ClassC p2 = new ClassC();
24. ClassA p3 = new ClassB();
25. ClassA p4 = new ClassC();
Which three are valid? (Choose three.)
A. p2 = p4;
B. p2 = (ClassC)p1;
C. p0 = p1;
D. p2 = (ClassC)p4;
E. p1 = p2;
F. p1 = (ClassB)p3;
Answer: C,D,F

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854   1Z0-854
18.Given this method in a class:
21. public String toString() {
22. StringBuffer buffer = new StringBuffer();
23. buffer.append('<');
24. buffer.append(this.name);
25. buffer.append('>');

NO.2 int c = super.multiply(a, b);

NO.3 }

NO.4 public Hello() {

NO.5 }
What is the result?
A. null
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 1.
F. test
Answer: F

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854 examen
8.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.6 return c;

NO.7 return buffer.toString();

NO.8 }
and:
30. Hello c = new Hello(5);
31: System.out.println(c.title);
What is the result?
A. The code runs with no output.
B. Hello
C. Hello World 5
D. Compilation fails.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. Hello World
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-854   1Z0-854   1Z0-854 examen   certification 1Z0-854
11.Given:
10. class Line {
11. public class Point { public int x,y;}
12. public Point getPoint() { return new Point(); }
13. }
14. class Triangle {
15. public Triangle() {
16. // insert code here
17. }
18. }
Which code, inserted at line 16, correctly retrieves a local instance of a Point object?
A. Point p = (new Line()).getPoint();
B. Line.Point p = Line.getPoint();
C. Point p = Line.getPoint();
D. Line.Point p = (new Line()).getPoint();
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-854   1Z0-854
12.Given:
11. // insert code here
12. private N min, max;
13. public N getMin() { return min; }
14. public N getMax() { return max; }
15. public void add(N added) {
16. if (min == null || added.doubleValue() < min.doubleValue())
17. min = added;
18. if (max == null || added.doubleValue() > max.doubleValue())
19. max = added;
20. }
21. }
Which two, inserted at line 11, will allow the code to compile? (Choose two.)
A. public class MinMax<?> {
B. public class MinMax<N extends Object> {
C. public class MinMax<N extends Integer> {
D. public class MinMax<? extends Object> {
E. public class MinMax<N extends Number> {
F. public class MinMax<? extends Number> {
Answer: C,E

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-854   1Z0-854
13.A developer is creating a class Book, that needs to access class Paper. The Paper class is deployed in
a JAR named myLib.jar.
Which three, taken independently, will allow the developer to use the Paper class while compiling the
Book class? (Choose three.)
A. The JAR file is located at $JAVA_HOME/jre/classes/myLib.jar.
B. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -d
/foo/myLib.jar Book.java
C. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and a classpath environment variable is set that
includes /foo/myLib.jar/Paper.class.
D. The JAR file is located at $JAVA_HOME/jre/lib/ext/myLib.jar..
E. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -classpath
/foo/myLib.jar Book.java
F. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -cp
/foo/myLib.jar/Paper Book.java.
G. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and a classpath environment variable is set that includes
/foo/myLib.jar.
Answer: D,E,G

Oracle   1Z0-854 examen   1Z0-854 examen
14.Given:
10. public class SuperCalc {
11. protected static int multiply(int a, int b) { return a * b;}
12. }
and:
20. public class SubCalc extends SuperCalc{
21. public static int multiply(int a, int b) {

NO.9 Given:
1. interface TestA { String toString(); }
2. public class Test {
3. public static void main(String[] args) {
4. System.out.println(new TestA() {
5. public String toString() { return "test"; }
6. });
7. }

NO.10 title += " World";

NO.11 Hello();

NO.12 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.13 Given:
12. import java.io.*;
13. public class Forest implements Serializable {
14. private Tree tree = new Tree();
15. public static void main(String [] args) {
16. Forest f = new Forest();
17. try {
18. FileOutputStream fs = new FileOutputStream("Forest.ser");
19. ObjectOutputStream os = new ObjectOutputStream(fs);
20. os.writeObject(f); os.close();
21. } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); }
22. } }
23.
24. class Tree { }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. An instance of Forest is serialized.
C. An instance of Forest and an instance of Tree are both serialized.
D. Compilation fails.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854 examen

NO.14 }
Which statement is true?
A. This code will perform well and converting the code to use StringBuilder will not enhance the
performance.
B. This code will perform poorly. For better performance, the code should be rewritten: return "<" +
this.name + ">";
C. This code is NOT thread-safe.
D. The programmer can replace StringBuffer with StringBuilder with no other changes.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-854 examen   1Z0-854
19.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:
20.Click the Exhibit button.
What two must the programmer do to correct the compilation errors? (Choose two.)
A. change the wheelCount variable in Car to protected
B. insert a call to this() in the MeGo constructor
C. insert a call to this() in the Car constructor
D. insert a call to super(vin) in the MeGo constructor
E. insert a call to super() in the MeGo constructor
F. change line 3 in the MeGo class to super.wheelCount = 3;
Answer: A,D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-854   certification 1Z0-854   1Z0-854

NO.15 int value;

NO.16 Given:
1. public class Boxer1{
2. Integer i;
3. int x;
4. public Boxer1(int y) {
5. x = i+y;
6. System.out.println(x);
7. }
8. public static void main(String[] args) {
9. new Boxer1(new Integer(4));

NO.17 public Hello(int value) {

NO.18 }

NO.19 title = "Hello";

NO.20 }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
B. A NullPointerException occurs at runtime.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 9.
D. A NumberFormatException occurs at runtime.
E. The value "4" is printed at the command line.
F. An IllegalStateException occurs at runtime.
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-854   certification 1Z0-854   1Z0-854
10.Given:
10. public class Hello {
11: String title;

NO.21 }

NO.22 Which two code fragments will execute the method doStuff() in a separate thread? (Choose two.)
A. new Thread() {
public void start() { doStuff(); }};
B. new Thread() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }};
C. new Thread(new Runnable() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}).start();
D. new Thread() {
public void start() { doStuff(); }
}.run();
E. new Thread(new Runnable() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}).run();
F. new Thread() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}.start();
Answer: C,F

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854   1Z0-854

NO.23 this.value = value;

NO.24 }

NO.25 Given:
20. public class CreditCard {
21.
22. private String cardID;
23. private Integer limit;
24. public String ownerName;
25.
26. public void setCardInformation(String cardID,
27. String ownerName,
28. Integer limit) {
29. this.cardID = cardID;
30. this.ownerName = ownerName;
31. this.limit = limit;
32. }
33. }
Which statement is true?
A. The ownerName variable breaks encapsulation.
B. The class is fully encapsulated.
C. The cardID and limit variables break polymorphism.
D. The code demonstrates polymorphism.
E. The setCardInformation method breaks encapsulation.
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z0-854   1Z0-854 examen   1Z0-854 examen

NO.26 Which three statements concerning the use of the java.io.Serializable interface are true? (Choose
three.)
A. Objects from classes that use aggregation cannot be serialized.
B. The values in fields with the transient modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization.
C. It is legal to serialize an object of a type that has a supertype that does NOT implement
java.io.Serializable.
D. The values in fields with the volatile modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization.
E. An object serialized on one JVM can be successfully deserialized on a different JVM.
Answer: B,C,E

Oracle   1Z0-854 examen   1Z0-854 examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854

NO.27 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. ?
Answer:

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade to Java SE 7 Programmer)

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NO.1 Given the code fragment:
String valid = "true";
if (valid) System.out.println ( valid );
else system.out.println ("not valid");
What is the result?
A. Valid
B. not valid
C. Compilation fails
D. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the code fragment:
int [] [] array2D = {{0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, 5, 6}};
system.out.print (array2D[0].length+ "" ); system.out.print(array2D[1].getClass(). isArray() + "");
system.out.println (array2D[0][1]);
What is the result?
A. 3false1
B. 2true3
C. 2false3
D. 3true1
E. 3false3
F. 2true1
G. 2false1
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-803   certification 1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803 examen

NO.3 Given:
public class ScopeTest {
int z;
public static void main(String[] args){
ScopeTest myScope = new ScopeTest();
int z = 6;
System.out.println(z);
myScope.doStuff();
System.out.println(z);
System.out.println(myScope.z);
}
void doStuff() {
int z = 5;
doStuff2();
System.out.println(z);
}
void doStuff2() {
z=4;
}
}
What is the result?
A.
6 5 6 4
B.
6 5 5 4
C.
6 5 6 6
D.
6 5 6 5
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-803   certification 1Z0-803

NO.4 Given the code fragment: interface SampleClosable {
public void close () throws java.io.IOException;
}
Which three implementations are valid?
A. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws java.io.IOException { / /do
something } }
B. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
C. public class Test implementations SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
D. public classTest extends SampleCloseable { Public voidclose ()throws java.IO.IOException{ / / do
something } }
Answer: D

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NO.5 Given the code fragment:
int b = 4;
b -- ;
System.out.println (-- b);
System.out.println(b);
What is the result?
A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 3 2
D. 3 3
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-803   certification 1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803 examen

NO.6 An unchecked exception occurs in a method dosomething()
Should other code be added in the dosomething() method for it to compile and execute?
A. The Exception must be caught
B. The Exception must be declared to be thrown.
C. The Exception must be caught or declared to be thrown.
D. No other code needs to be added.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803

NO.7 View the exhibit:
public class Student { public String name = ""; public int age = 0; public String major = "Undeclared"; public
boolean fulltime = true;
public void display() {
System.out.println("Name: " + name + " Major: " + major); } public boolean isFullTime() {
return fulltime;
}
}
Given:
Public class TestStudent {
Public static void main(String[] args) {
Student bob = new Student ();
Student jian = new Student();
bob.name = "Bob";
bob.age = 19;
jian = bob; jian.name = "Jian";
System.out.println("Bob's Name: " + bob.name);
}
}
What is the result when this program is executed.?
A. Bob's Name: Bob
B. Bob's Name: Jian
C. Nothing prints
D. Bob s name
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803

NO.8 Given: public class DoCompare1 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String[] table = {"aa", "bb", "cc"};
for (String ss: table) {
int ii = 0;
while (ii < table.length) {
System.out.println(ss + ", " + ii);
ii++;
}
}
How many times is 2 printed as a part of the output?
A. Zero
B. Once
C. Twice
D. Thrice
E. Compilation fails.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803

NO.9 Given the code fragment:
Int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
Systemout.printIn(array [4] [1]);
System.out.printIn (array) [1][4]);
int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
System.out.println(array [4][1]);
System.out.println(array) [1][4]);
What is the result?
A. 4 Null
B. Null 4
C. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
D. 4 An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundException is thrown at run time
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803   1Z0-803

NO.10 Which two are valid instantiations and initializations of a multi dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array 2D ={ { 0, 1, 2, 4} {5, 6}};
B. int [] [] array2D = new int [2] [2];
array2D[0] [0] = 1;
array2D[0] [1] =2;
array2D[1] [0] =3;
array2D[1] [1] =4;
C. int [] [] []array3D = {{0, 1}, {2, 3}, {4, 5}};
D. int [] [] [] array3D = new int [2] [2] [2];
array3D [0] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
array3D [1] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
E. int [] [] array2D = {0, 1};
Answer: B,D

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials)

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Release 2: SQL Tuning)

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NO.1 The collections Manager runs the Determine Delinquency Using Scoring program to identify
delinquent transitions. She wants to know the status of a particular transaction. On which tab she
will find the status.
A. Customer Aging tab
B. Transaction Details tab
C. Transactions tab
D. Transaction aging tab
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-506   1z0-506 examen   certification 1z0-506

NO.2 Select three values that default from Customer Profile Classes.
A. Currency
B. Legal Entity
C. Payment Terms
D. Statement Cycle
E. Business Purpose
Answer: A,C,D

Oracle   certification 1z0-506   1z0-506 examen   1z0-506 examen

NO.3 Select three valid statements related to the Shared Service Model.
A. Shared Service Personnel can view Invoices across various business units.
B. Shared Service Personnel can do cross-business unit cash application.
C. Shared Service Personnel can process invoices for various business units.
D. Shared Service Personnel can see customer account details across business units.
E. Shared Service Personnel can report data across all business units but can enter transactions
ONLY against one business unit.
Answer: A,C,E

Oracle examen   1z0-506   1z0-506 examen   certification 1z0-506   1z0-506 examen   certification 1z0-506

NO.4 You have created an Invoice with an incorrect unit price. You need to perform the Rebill task
from
the Manage Transactions user interface to enter the correct transaction. Which two actions does
the Manage Transactions user interface allow you to perform for the Rebill task?
A. Duplicate the original transaction.
B. Create a credit memo.
C. Incomplete the transaction.
D. Reverse the Transaction.
E. Correct the unit price.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1z0-506   1z0-506   certification 1z0-506

NO.5 The drilldown option available in the task pane for receipts does NOT include ____________.
A. Create Remittance via Spreadsheet
B. Correct Funds Transfer Errors
C. Lockbox Transmission History
D. Create Receipt via Spreadsheet
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-506   1z0-506   1z0-506   1z0-506
6. You can click the manager Invoice Lines from the Billing Work Area to find Autoinvoice
Exceptions. What parameters are used to summarize the exceptions for review?
A. Business Unit, Transaction Type, Invoice Date, Currency
B. Business Unit, Customer Name, Transaction Source, Total Amount
C. Business Unit, Transaction Source, Creation Date, Currency
D. Business Unit, Transaction Source, Transaction Type, Creation Date
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1z0-506   1z0-506 examen   1z0-506
7. Which functionality is NOT provided by the Receivables to Ledger Reconciliation Report?
A. Limiting the display using the ad hoc parameter
B. Drilldown to see reconciling details
C. Drilldown to see what needs to transfer and post to the general ledger
D. Graphical and visualization components for viewing the reconciliation details
E. The reasons for the reconciling differences
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-506   certification 1z0-506   1z0-506 examen
8. A customer calls into the Accounts Receivables Department asking for the balance of all
invoices
due in the next 30 days and has a question about a specific invoice line. As a Billing Specialist
what action will you perform?
A. Review the invoice in the Review Customer Account Details user interface.
B. Apply, reverse, or process the receipt.
C. Create an open debit memo.
D. Review receipt-, in pending status
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1z0-506 examen   1z0-506 examen   1z0-506
9. The billing Specialist creates an adjustment for an INCORRECT invoice and sends it for approval
through the review and Manage Transaction link in the Billing Work Area. Since the adjustment
amount is above approval limit, it is routed to the Billing Manager. What is the status of the
Adjustment when the approver sees the adjustment in his Work Queue?
A. Pending Research
B. Pending Approval
C. Approval Required
D. Waiting Approval
Answer: D

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10. You are the Billing Manager and you are in charge of reviewing transactions and approving
them.
Which two tabs are available for your role in the Adjustments Overview Region on the Billing Work
Area page?
A. Pending My Approval
B. Pending Approval
C. Pending Approval from Others
D. Approved
E. Pending Research
Answer: B,C

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