2013年9月29日星期日

Certification SAP de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen P-SD-64, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: P-SD-64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (ORDER FULFILLMENT WITH SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is still using the Logistic Information System (LIS) but considers
introducing SAP BW.
After analyzing the reports, what would be a reason to keep LIS for some of the reports?
A. The BW reports are unable to handle more than twelve dimensions.
B. These LIS reports already contain interactive visual analytical views.
C. The BW is unable to handle the required authorization concept.
D. The posting of data to LIS is event controlled and allows real-time reporting.
Answer: D

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NO.2 00 p.m. are evaluated on the next day.
D. The scheduling is exact and planned receipts are evaluated at 12:00 p.m. of the day.
Answer: A

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12. Your customer is using ATP check including replenishment lead time which is not
maintained in
material master.
Which time indicators are used in this case?
A. In-house production: goods receipt processing time + pick/pack time
B. External procurement: purchasing department processing time + planned delivery time
C. In-house production: in-house production time + pick/pack time
D. External procurement: planned delivery time + loading time
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the advantages of an ATP check in SAP SCM compared to an ATP check in
SAP ERP?
(Choose two)
A. Higher system performance
B. Simultaneous access to identical products
C. Reduced master data maintenance
D. Elimination of stock shortage
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Your customer has implemented sales order management using all available scenarios
in SAP ERP.
They plan to extend their business processes by using SAP CRM.
For which scenario do you advise them to use CRM?
A. Contract Management
B. Inquiry Management
C. Opportunity Management
D. Quotation Management
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your customer has added fields to the sales order item table. These should be included
into Sales
Information System (SIS) and SAP BW reports. How do you ensure data accuracy before
activating the
respective DataSource?
A. Prevent document updates
B. Lock setup table
C. Delete BW data
D. Deactivate RFC connections
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which object do you use to switch on the ATP check?
A. Requirement class
B. Checking rule
C. Requirement type
D. Strategy group
Answer: A

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NO.7 Sales documents are extracted from SAP ERP to SAP BW using the Logistics Cockpit.
How do you ensure that only changed documents are extracted?
A. Implement a User Exit.
B. Activate the supplied Business Add-In.
C. This requirement is met by standard functionality.
D. Reduce the frequency of extracts for sales, billing, and delivery documents.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your customer is regularly facing long time periods between the creation of the delivery
and the
creation of the invoice for export customers. They are asking you for an option to update the
export data
in export invoices.
What is a possible solution?
A. Activate customer BAdI in the invoice.
B. Configure standard copy control.
C. Define commodity codes.
D. Enable direct billing type access to the material export data.
Answer: B

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NO.9 In which areas does the Business Content that is delivered with SAP Global Trade
Services (GTS)
enable your customer to perform strategic reporting? (Choose two)
A. Transport processing
B. Customs processing
C. Duty rate procedure
D. Transit procedure
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Your customer is planning to replace the current Excel based capacity planning with an
SAP based ATP
solution.
How do you prevent overbooking of the plant?
A. Implement an ATP check against product allocations which are designed as production
capacity.
B. Implement an ATP check against replenishment lead time.
C. Implement a multi-level ATP check against component availability in PP.
D. Implement a rescheduling with ATP check.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your customer is unable to post goods issue, although material availability is
confirmed with ATP for that
date. Shipment scheduling is carried out in SAP ECC.
What is the reason?
A. The scheduling is progressive and planned receipts are evaluated at the beginning of the
day.
B. The scheduling is conservative and planned receipts are evaluated at the end of the day.
C. The scheduling is total conservative and planned receipts with confirmed material
availability after

NO.12 How do you characterize the principle of the availability check?
A. First Come - First Served
B. Last In - First Out
C. First In - First Out
D. First Expired - First Out
Answer: A

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NO.13 How can foreign trade data be determined in a sales document?
A. They can only be determined during sales order creation.
B. They can only be maintained by master data maintenance.
C. They can be added later on in the accounting document.
D. They can be taken over from customized default values.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your customer created FI documents but forgot to maintain some foreign trade data.
Where can you add missing foreign trade data?
A. It is not possible anymore
B. In the accounting document
C. In the foreign trade cockpit
D. In the controlling document
Answer: C

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NO.15 SAP credit management allows you to use predefined analyses in the SAP BW.
What is a key benefit of this strategic reporting.?
A. Automatic handling of the order to cash process in managing the credit limit.
B. Monitoring credit risks and analysis of customer payment and order behavior.
C. Immediate analysis of customers to trigger alerts in the invoicing process.
D. Monitoring of delivery processes to reduce the risk of supplying a bankrupt customer.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C-GRCAC-10
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Access Control 10.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

C-GRCAC-10 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/C-GRCAC-10.html

NO.1 Which configuration parameters determine the content of the log generated by the SPM Log
Synch job? (Choose three)
A. Enable Risk Change log (1002)
B. Enable Authorization Logging (1100)
C. Retrieve System log (4004)
D. Retrieve OS Command log (4006)
E. Retrieve Audit log (4005)
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 You have identified some risks that need to be defined as cross-system risks. How do you
configure your system to enable cross-system risk analysis?
A. 1. Set the analysis scope of the function to cross-system.
2. Create cross-system type connectors.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the appropriate connector group.
4. Generate rules.
B. 1. Set the analysis scope of the risk to cross-system.
2. Create cross-system type connectors.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the appropriate connector group.
4. Generate rules.
C. 1. Set the analysis scope of the risk to cross-system.
2. Create a cross-system type connector group.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the connector group.
4. Generate rules.
D. 1. Set the analysis scope of the function to cross-system.
2. Create a cross-system type connector group.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the connector group.
4. Generate rules.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your customer wants a manager to fulfill both MSMP workflow agent purposes.
How do you configure this?
A. Maintain the manager agent twice, once for each purpose, using the same agent ID.
B. Maintain the manager agent once and assign both purposes to it without using an agent ID.
C. Maintain the manager agent twice, once for each purpose, using different agent IDs.
D. Maintain the manager agent once and assign both purposes to it using the same agent ID.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer wants to eliminate false positives from their risk analysis results.
How must you configure Access Control to include organizational value checks when performing a
risk analysis? (Choose two)
A. Configure organization rules for each relevant function.
B. Update the functions that contain each relevant action by activating the fields for the required
permissions and maintaining a value for each specific organization.
C. Configure organization rules for each relevant risk.
D. Update the functions that contain each relevant action by activating the fields for the required
permissions.
E. Configure organization level system parameters to incorporate all organization levels for each
relevant risk.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following objects can you maintain in the "Maintain Paths" work area of MSMP
workflow configuration? (Choose three)
A. Paths
B. Path versions
C. Rules for path mappings
D. Stage notification settings
E. Stages
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Your customer has created a custom transaction code ZFB10N by copying transaction FB10
and
implementing a user exit.
How can you incorporate the customer enhancement into the global rule set so that it will be
available for Risk Analysis?
A. Update security permissions in all relevant authorization objects, maintain the custom program
name in all relevant functions, and generate the access rules.
B. Update all relevant functions with ZFB10N, maintain the permission values for all relevant
authorization objects, and generate the access rules.
C. Update all relevant functions with ZFB10N, maintain the permission values in the relevant
access risk, and generate the global rule set.
D. Update the relevant access risk with ZFB10N, maintain access rules in all relevant functions,
and generate the global rule set.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What does assigning the Logical Group (SOD-LOG) type to a connector group allow you to do?
A. Run a cross-system analysis.
B. Use the connector group for transports to the target system.
C. Monitor the target system.
D. Use the connector group as a business role management landscape.
Answer: D

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9. Who approves the review of the periodic segregation of duties?
A. Mitigation monitors
B. Role owners
C. Mitigation approvers
D. Risk owners
Answer: D

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10. How are lines and columns linked in a BRFplus initiator decision table?
A. A column to a column through a logical OR
B. A column to a line through a logical OR
C. A column to a column through a logical AND
D. A line to a line through a logical AND
Answer: C

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NO.8 What do you mitigate using Access Control?
A. Roles
B. Users
C. Risks
D. Functions
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C-THR12-65
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Human Capital Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

C-THR12-65 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/C-THR12-65.html

NO.1 A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and
have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule
should
determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous
three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A,B,D

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5. A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They
are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee's organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee's address changes during a pay period. They are used
to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee's bank information changes during a pay period. They
are used to allocate payments to the correct account.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated.
These
employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
Answer: C

SAP   C-THR12-65   C-THR12-65

NO.4 Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of
posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C-TFIN52-66-JP
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6 (C_TFIN52_66日本語版))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 下記タスク ・ タイプのどれが閉じる コ ックピ ットかスケジ ュ ール ・ マネージャー に よ
ってサポートされていますか。 (3 つ選択してください)
A. スプレッドシート
B. 処理
C. 調整キー
D. ノート( 注意かマイルストーンとして)
E. 変形を備えた、あるいは変形のないプログラム
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 あなたは、G / L 文書を投稿しました。 テキストフィールドで、 転記キーのフィールド
の状態が必要なエントリと G/ L 勘定のフィ ールドステータスに設定されているが、隠し項
目に設定されています。投稿の間に何が起こりますか。
A. 文書が掲載される。
B. 警告メッセージが 示される。
C. エラーメッセージ が示される。
D. テキストフィール ドは隠される。
Answer: C

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NO.3 あなたの主要な元帳(元帳解決)で は 、貸借対照表は会社 コ ードと部分のために 作 成
されなければなりません。
どのカスタマイズするセッティングを作る必要がありますか。 (2 つ選択してください)
A. 留保利益勘定を定義する。
B. 2 つの留保利益勘定を定義し、あなたの P &L 勘定に割り当てる。
C. あなたのリーディ ング元帳へのセグメント報告のシナリオを割り当てる。
D. 販売会計のコスト をアクティブにする。
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 クロス会社コー ドの原価計算を設定するための前提条件は何ですか。 (2 つ選択してく
ださい)
A. 同じ会計年度バリアントは、すべての会社コードに使用される。
B. 同じ通貨はすべて の会社コードに使用される。
C. オープン期間の同 じバリアントはすべての会社コードに使用され る。
D. アカウントの同じ チャートはすべての会社コードに使用される。
Answer: A,D

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-66-JP   C-TFIN52-66-JP examen

NO.5 次のアカウント のどれが直接に更新されいますか。
A. グループ勘定科目表中のアカウント
B. 操作の勘定科目表 中のアカウント
C. マスター勘定科目 表中のアカウント
D. カントリー勘定科 目表中のアカウント
Answer: B

SAP   C-TFIN52-66-JP examen   C-TFIN52-66-JP examen   C-TFIN52-66-JP   certification C-TFIN52-66-JP   C-TFIN52-66-JP

NO.6 資産クラスは以 下のどれにあてはまりますか。
A. 管理領域内のすべての会社コードに
B. 実例( クライアント から独立した) のすべての会社コードに
C. クライアント内の すべての会社コードに
D. アカウントの同じ グラフを共有するクライアント内のすべての会社コードに
Answer: C

SAP   C-TFIN52-66-JP   certification C-TFIN52-66-JP   C-TFIN52-66-JP   certification C-TFIN52-66-JP

NO.7 資産会計のレポートの 場合、どのオ ブ ジェクトには、使用 す る必要があり、必要 に 応
じて、ソートレベルおよび/ または集計レベルを決定するためにカスタマイズしますか。
A. 償却領域
B. ソートキー
C. ソートバリアント
D. 評価領域
Answer: C

SAP   C-TFIN52-66-JP   certification C-TFIN52-66-JP   C-TFIN52-66-JP   C-TFIN52-66-JP

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Code d'Examen: C-TAW12-71
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certfied Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.02)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

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NO.1 When is the authorization of user checked for entering data.
A. When entered.
B. At selection screen
C. At selection screen Output
D. End of page.
Answer: B

SAP   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71 examen

NO.2 Which of the following part of SAP business suite. (3 Answers)
A. SAP Design By one
B. SAP Design All
C. Product life cycle management
D. ERP
E. CRM
Answer: CDE

certification SAP   C-TAW12-71 examen   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.3 What you can do in class builder.
A. Local class and Local interface from your local program.
B. Redefine classes and interfaces.
C. When you can define global class, you can use in F8 Function.
Answer: ABC

SAP examen   certification C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.4 What are the components of ABAP Workbench.(3 answer)
A. Function builder.
B. Class Builder
C. Screen Painter
D. Two more options.
Answer: ABC

SAP   C-TAW12-71   certification C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.5 In a table, when buffering settings are switched on and buffering style is single,What would
be the option .
A. SELECT SINGLE.
B. SELECT SINGLE...... UPDATE
C. SELECT... LOOP
D. One more option
Answer: A

SAP   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.6 What are the parameters of Functional method. (2 answer)
A. Importing
B. Exporting
C. Changing
D. Returning
E. Transporting
Answer: AD

SAP   C-TAW12-71 examen   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.7 When you press Double_Click, What will happen.
A. Handler class.
B. Handler method.
C. event handler class method triggers
D. 2 more options.
Answer: C

SAP   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.8 There are two classes CL_SUPER and CL_SUB. Class CL_SUPER has method say
SUPER_METHOD and CL_SUB has a method SUB_METHOD.[This q gave me confidence and put me
into confusion!!....what is wrong (TRICKY thing is they dint mention CL_SUB is inherited from
CL_SUPER )].
DATA: GO_SUPER type ref to CL_SUPER,
GO_SUB type ref to CL_SUB.
A. GO_SUPER->SUPER_METHOD.
B. GO_SUPER->SUB_METHOD.(i CHOSE THIS BUT PLEASE READ THE QWELL)
C. GO_SUB->SUB_METHOD.
D. GO_SUB->SUPER_METHOD.
Answer: A

SAP   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71 examen

NO.9 What is defined in ABAP Dictionary. (3 answer)
A. Type tools.
B. Transparent tables.
C. Domains.
D. Internal tables
E. Methods
Answer: ABC

certification SAP   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71 examen   C-TAW12-71   certification C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.10 Size of Integer.
A. 8 bytes
B. 6 bytes
C. 4 bytes
D. Assigns as you declare the value.
Answer: C

SAP   C-TAW12-71   certification C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

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Code d'Examen: E20-553
Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Infrastructure Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 Which impact policies are available on an Isilon cluster?
A. High, Medium, Low, Paused
B. High, Medium, Low, Default
C. High, Medium, Low, Auto
D. ASAP , High, Medium, Low
Answer: A

Isilon   E20-553   E20-553

NO.2 Which protocols are supported by Isilon OneFS for file access?
A. NFS, HDFS, HTTP , SMB
B. SMB, HTTP , SMTP , HDFS
C. HDFS, NFS, iSCSI, SNMP
D. FTP , NFS, SMB, FC
Answer: A

Isilon examen   E20-553   certification E20-553

NO.3 Which methods of Isilon OneFS administration are enforced by RBAC?
A. Platform API, command line, and web administration interface
B. Command line, InsightIQ, and web administration interface
C. SNMP and web administration interface
D. Command line, web administration interface, and SNMP
Answer: A

Isilon   E20-553   E20-553   E20-553   E20-553 examen   E20-553

NO.4 An Isilon customer currently has an 8-node cluster of older X-Series nodes. They are planning
several upgrades over the next three years in the following stages:
-Stage 1: Add 2 X-Series nodes to meet performance growth -Stage 2: Add 4 NL-Series nodes to
meet archive capacity growth -Stage 3: Add 10 New X-Series nodes as a hardware refresh -Stage 4:
Remove older X-Series nodes
At which stage will a SmartPool license be required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

Isilon   certification E20-553   E20-553 examen   E20-553 examen   E20-553   E20-553 examen

NO.5 An Isilon customer would like to have different snapshot policies and schedules on the same
directory. Why is this possible on an Isilon cluster?
A. SnapshotIQ snaps at the directory level not the volume level
B. All snapshots are scheduled through the CLI
C. SnapshotIQ uses a third-party product to create different schedules and policies on a directory
D. SnapshotIQ snaps at the volume level not the directory level
Answer: A

Isilon   E20-553   E20-553 examen   E20-553

NO.6 An Isilon customer has two 5-node clusters, one for production and one for disaster recovery
(DR). The customer's workflows are replicated to the DR cluster through SyncIQ on individual
schedules. They have shutdown their production cluster for scheduled maintenance, failed over to
the DR cluster, and are currently operating from the DR site.
Assume both clusters have identical shares, exports, user authentication, and that the client
applications have been stopped and the DNS re-pointed. What is the easiest method to continue
operations on production?
A. Initiate Automated Failback of the SyncIQ Policy
B. Revert the SyncIQ Policy
C. Initiate Manual Failback of the SyncIQ Policy
D. No change to the SyncIQ Policy
Answer: A

certification Isilon   E20-553   certification E20-553

NO.7 Which block size does Isilon SyncIQ use to transfer data?
A. 2 KB
B. 4 KB
C. 6 KB
D. 8 KB
Answer: D

certification Isilon   E20-553   E20-553   certification E20-553   E20-553

NO.8 Which node type adds CPU, memory, and Fibre Channel connectivity?
A. Backup Accelerator node
B. Performance Accelerator node
C. X-Series node
D. NL-Series node
Answer: A

certification Isilon   E20-553 examen   E20-553 examen   certification E20-553

NO.9 What is the default method in which Isilon OneFS uses SSDs?
A. Metadata read acceleration
B. Metadata read/write acceleration
C. Data on SSDs
D. Avoid SSDs
Answer: A

Isilon examen   certification E20-553   E20-553   E20-553   E20-553 examen

NO.10 While configuring Isilon SmartConnect, a customer has determined that their workload
primarily consists of short-lived connections, such as HTTP and/or FTP . Which load-balancing policy
will provide the most efficient client distribution?
A. CPU Utilization
B. Round Robin
C. Connection Count
D. Random Selection
Answer: A

certification Isilon   E20-553   E20-553

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-900.6
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two design issues relate to increasing security in VoIP converged solutions? (Choose two.)
A. suggesting upgrading LAN switches to support QoS
B. defining VLANs to limit access from specific IP endpoints
C. considering encryption on IP calls for protection from eavesdropping
D. considering G.729 compression to protect IP calls from eavesdropping
Answer: BC

certification Avaya   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   certification 132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.2 Which three are QoS/CoS recommendations that the Avaya Solution Designer can make to
optimize an all Avaya Converged IP Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points.
C. Port priority can also be used to enhance 802.1p/Q and DiffServ.
D. Mixed networks should choose only one (802.1p/Q or DSCP) as a best practice.
Answer: ABC

certification Avaya   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   certification 132-S-900.6

NO.3 In a distributed S87xx Media Server system with G650 Media Gateways in 3 port networks, what is the
distance concern with the TDM cable length?
A. Due to the length of the TDM cable, the slack must be coiled and secured to the back of the PN.
B. The TDM cable can be ordered to custom fit the system. The designer must know the PN to G650
layout.
C. If the incorrect cable length attribute is chosen, it will not allow the associated G650s to connect to the
PN.
D. Due to its limited length, each G650 of a PN must be co-located in the same 19 inch data rack as the
rest of the PN.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6 examen

NO.4 You are preparing to design an IP Telephony-based S87xx. You are assisting the client in determining
the type of QoS/CoS they should incorporate on their data network.
What do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Routed networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
C. Mixed networks should use either DSCP or IEEE 802.1p/Q.
D. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points (DSCP).
Answer: BD

certification Avaya   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6 examen

NO.5 If a customer has multiple systems from different vendors and wants to network them together, which
software should be used?
A. DCS
B. ARS
C. UDP
D. QSIG
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.6 The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which configuration?
A. Voice Bearer over ATM
B. Stand Alone (S87xx only)
C. Traditional G3R without IP
D. Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6

NO.7 A sales engineer completes an S87xx Media Server/G650 Media Gateway design which includes IP
Telephony, multi-locations, and LAN/WAN integration. One of the deliverables for handoff to the
implementation team is the network region design.
What four IP endpoint characteristics may be included in the network region design document? (Choose
four.)
A. codec set
B. UDP port ranges
C. 802.1p/Q settings
D. VLAN assignments
E. identification of locations
Answer: ABCE

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   certification 132-S-900.6

NO.8 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. They are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: AB

Avaya   certification 132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6 examen

NO.9 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP Telephony endpoints are connected to 10 digital sets, 10 IP sets, and 5
CO trunks.
How many TN2602 Media Processor boards are required if G.729 is incorporated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6

NO.10 You have a corporate site with an S87xx Media Server in location A, and a remote site with an
G700/S8300 LSP processor in Location B. The WAN connection goes down.
In what sequence will the G700 register with the S8300?
A. Each H.248 gateway will reboot and register with the S8300 LSP when it comes back up.
B. The S8300 LSP processor reboots, and then notifies each H.248 gateway it is now the primary call
processor.
C. The S8300 LSP processor notifies each H.248 gateway in the media controller list that it is now the
primary call processor.
D. Each H.248 gateway will detect that the S87xx Media Server is not available and will reregister with the
next Media Server in the media controller list.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.11 An RFP for a Interactive Voice Response (IVR) unit and mid-sized communication system has been
released. You are responsible for determining the design solution. The RFP states that the IVR platform
must be engineered to handle 135 25-second messages during the busy hour. You calculate this
requirement to equal 47 ports.
If you provide 47 ISDN PRI trunks (two ISDN PRI facilities), which two traffic concerns must you consider?
(Choose two.)
A. No trunk growth is available on the ISDN PRI facilities.
B. 47 active trunks overload the two ISDN PRI facilities, seriously affecting traffic load and call
completions.
C. Considering there is only one channel for signaling, a backup D channel cannot be provided, affecting
traffic if the D channel fails.
D. ISDN PRI facilities direct from the central office limit the caller's ability to connect to the proper
resource, causing increased usage.
Answer: AC

Avaya   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.12 In discussing an organization's DHCP strategy, you find they distribute IP address assignment for IP
telephones at the branch location via the telephony gateway.
Which two gateways are viable options to support the customer's DHCP strategy? (Choose two.)
A. G250 Media Gateway
B. G350 Media Gateway
C. G650 Media Gateway
D. G700 Media Gateway
Answer: AB

Avaya   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6 examen   certification 132-S-900.6   certification 132-S-900.6

NO.13 Your customer solution requirements call for a mix of SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which entity in the SIP
Infrastructure can perform routing of sessions invitations, authentications and accounting functions?
A. SIP Proxy
B. SIP redirect
C. SIP registrar
D. SIP media gateway controller
Answer: A

certification Avaya   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6   certification 132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.14 The customer has a multi node LAN with connectivity to a 16 location multi-vendor (Juniper, Cisco,
3Com and Avaya) WAN.
When implementing VoIP on this network, which two routing protocols should be implemented? (Choose
two.)
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. ID 10t
D. OSPF
Answer: AD

Avaya examen   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.15 A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya G700 Gateways at remote
locations. Each G700 Gateway will include an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and approximately 75
IP sets incorporating G.711.
What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost?
A. Local CLAN board
B. Alternate Gatekeeper
C. S8300 Auto-Registration
D. Gateway Alternate Redirection
Answer: B

certification Avaya   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6 examen

NO.16 A customer is looking to add a remote location to the S8730. They will have six IP telephones that will
require PoE, two analog CO lines and require basic survivability. Which of the following would you
recommend?
A. G250 - analog / SLS
B. G250 - analog / LSP
C. G350 - analog / SLS
D. IG550 / SLS
Answer: A

certification Avaya   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6 examen   certification 132-S-900.6

NO.17 Which three should be investigated when validating a wireless network design? (Choose three.)
A. installed ductwork and walls
B. locations of network servers
C. other wireless networks in the area
D. operating system of user machines
E. environmental, moisture, temperature variations
Answer: ACE

Avaya examen   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   certification 132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.18 Your client's department store business has 24 locations worldwide. Each location has its own
communications switch and is included in a QSIG network. The stores have standardized on specific
extension numbers representing departments. The client is considering moving to a single, distributed
S8700 system but is concerned with the loss of dial plan functionalities.
How do you address the client's concern?
A. provide Uniform Dial Plan software
B. utilize ACM Multi-location Dial Plan software
C. create unique extensions per location for each application
D. relate that standard S87xx dial plan software will address the issues
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-900.6 examen   132-S-900.6 examen

NO.19 A customer has an Avaya S87xx Media Server with an Avaya G650 Media Gateway. They want the
remote site tied-in to the main. The remote site has a DSL line for Internet access. They currently have a
secure VPN tunnel to the main site and want to implement VoIP over this tunnel.
What is your biggest concern as a designer?
A. NAT issues
B. implementation issues
C. Security cannot be guaranteed
D. Voice quality cannot be guaranteed
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

NO.20 Your client is considering a VoIP application for their S8500 Media Server and G650 Media Gateway.
Due to the time-sensitive nature of VoIP applications, several issues should be discussed prior to arriving
at a final design.
Which two VoIP guidelines should you discuss with the customer? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP should be implemented on an entirely switched network.
B. VoIP will cause some discourse due to lower voice quality than TDM calls.
C. VoIP endpoints should be placed on separate subnets or VLANs based on communities of interest.
D. When PCs are attached to IP phones, the uplink to the Ethernet switch should be at least 20 Mbps.
Answer: AC

Avaya   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6   132-S-900.6

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-720.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer has basic reporting requirements that include agent level skill reporting for 12
simultaneous supervisors accessing real-time information using PCs over their Local Area Network. What
is the most cost effective reporting offer that meets these requirements?
A. BCMR Desktop
B. BCMS
C. CMS
D. Operational Analyst
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.2 Your customer wants to periodically adjust agent skill assignments and preferences automatically
(without human intervention) based on real-time agent sales results in their CRM application.
Which solution would satisfy the requirement?
A. Implement a custom CTI application which will change the agent skills.
B. Pursue a custom application through Avaya CSI
C. Use Avaya Site Administration Scheduling.
D. Use CMS Supervisor scripting.
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.3 You are working an intermittent issue with Avaya IP Agent R6 and have enabled Event Logging on the
end-users computer to capture log files. You need to instruct the end-user how to insert an event mark in
the log when the problem occurs.
Which keyboard combination do you have the end-user press to mark the event?
A. Alt + M
B. Alt + E
C. Ctrl + E
D. CtrI+M
Answer: C

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.4 You have just received a call from a customer that agent 6024 is no longer receiving calls for skill 6.
The customer informs you that the agent was receiving calls yesterday for this skill. You display the agent
login ID and inform the customer that skill 6 is no longer assigned in the agents profile. The customer
wants to know when the agents profile was changed. Keep in mind that changes to agent profiles for this
customer can only be made through the Media Server,
Which command would you use to determine when a change was made to this agents profile?
A. display changes extension 6024
B. list history
C. display agent 6024
D. displayevents 6024
E. trace agents
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.5 Your customer is implementing Application Enablement Services for a TSAPI application. What
represents the recommended TCPI1P connectMty for AE Services?
A. AE Services etho and AE Services ethi both connect to the local LAN.
B. AE Services etho connects to a dedicated CLAN, AE Services ethi connects to a second dedicated
CLAN. ME Services eth2 connects to the local LAN.
C. AE Services etho connects to the customer application server1 ME Services ethi connects to a
dedicated CLAN.
D. AE Services etho connects to a private LANfV1..AN for the transport links to Communication Manager,
AE Services ethi connects to the customers LAN.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.6 Your customer wants the ability to automatically notity Avaya Call Management System (CMS)
Supervisors when there are excessive calls in queue to be answered. A possible solution is to implement
the Communication and Solution Integration CMS Supervisor Threshold Paging Package
Which condition must be met for the CMS Supervisor Threshold Paging Package to work?
A. The CMS must have access to the public network.
B. The agent must have remote text messaging capabilities
C. The supervisor must has a CMS login ID
D. The refresh rate for checking the users thresholds can be changed.
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.7 A customer wants to know the definition of the Average ACD Time on the Historical Split Skill Summary
Interval Report. Which documentation would you reference in order to obtain this information?
A. Avaya Call Management System Supervisor Release 14 Reports
B. Avaya CMS Supervisor Release 14 Report Designer
C. Avaya CMS Capacities
D. Avaya Call Management System Release 14 Administration
Answer: A

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.8 The events table provides a list of events, a brief description that displays on the screen for the event,
and a full explanation of the event. In what document can this table be found?
A. Feature Description and Implementation for Avaya Communication Manager
B. Administrator Guide for Avaya Communication Manager
C. ACD Guide for Avaya Communication Manager
D. Avaya Call Center Release 4.0 Call Vectoring and Expert Agent Selection (EAS) Guide
Answer: D

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.9 The field service technician is responsible for which two tasks? (Choose two )
A. onsite equipment inventorV
B. application of powerto onsrte equipment
C. obtaining necessary TCP/ IP addresses
D. ensunng the equipment room is ready for installation
Answer: A, B

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.10 Your customer is implementing a non-AVAYA CI/LAN application in conjunction with Communication
Manager (CM) 4 0 What is the minimum software licensing required on Communication Manager and AE
Services?
A. ASAI Core on CM and TSAPI Basic and Ad ¯i anced on AE Se r M ces
B. ASAI Core on CM and CvtAN on AE Ser ¯.i ces
C. ASAI Core, ASAI Plus and Cli Stations on CM and CVLAN on AE Services
D. CTI Propnetary Adjunct inks on CM and CVL.AN on AE Services
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.11 Your customer is implementing an AE Services 4 0 and has purchased the software only solution.
What hardware and software must the customer provide?
A. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3
B. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 4
C. server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition , and all third-party software required for AE
D. Services server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3. and all third-party software required
for AE Services
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.12 Which file is responsible for setting up a default route on a CMS system?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /etc/router
C. /etc/deftultrouter
D. /etc/netstat
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.13 Your client needs to address agent morale issues thin their call center. These issues are tied to those
agents who staff a higher number of skills resulting in more time spent on ACO calls (also known as hot
seats ¯).
Which Avaya capability should be used to help eliminate ® ho t sea t ¡¯ in a c a ll ce nter
A. Auto-Reserve Agents
B. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS)
D. Percent Allocation Distribution (PAD)
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.14 Your customer is migrating their call center from basic ACD to EAS.
After the EAS feature has been licensed on the system, what are three tasks that must be completed to
facilitate the EAS conversion? (Choose three.)
A. EAS must be optioned on the Feature Related System Parameters form.
B. The CMS (if present) switch administration for the ACO must be changed to support EAS.
C. Queue Status Indicators must be re-administered.
D. Agent work mode buttons on voice terminals must be modified.
E. Administer hunt groups for Redirect on No Answer (RONA).
Answer: A, B, D

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.15 Your customer is implementing third-party data directed routing
Which three ctor steps would cause an adjunct routing request to be terminated? (Choose three.)
A. check split
B. wait
C. queue
D. go to step
E. converse on split
Answer: A, C, E

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.16 Which of the following is not a valid connecbvity test available using the Applications Enablement
Services Utilities menu available from OAM?
A. TSAPI Test
B. Ping Host
C. ASAI Test
D. Traceroute
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.17 Your customer would like to be able to collect call center data when the enterprise fragments using a
remote gateway. Since this is a small location, an LSP was installed to support the users Which system
would allow the customer to collect and then add data back to the main Call Management System (CMS)?
A. HACMS
B. Primary CMS
C. BCMR-D
D. Survivable CMS
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.18 For a High Availabihty CMS design supporting 4 ACDs with the CMS servers co-located with a local
ACD, the customer should have available which of the following Ethernet switch port configurations to
support the installation?
A. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each remote Communication Manager location I Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 1 Ethernet switch port for each CMS server
B. 1 Ethernet switch port for each Communication Manager and 2 Ethernet switch ports for the Primary
and Secondary CMS servers.
C. 2 Ethernet swich ports at each remote Communication Manager location. 1 Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 2 Ethernet switch ports for each CIViS
server.
D. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each Communication Manager location and 2 Ethernet switch ports for each
CMS server (Primary and Seconday)
Answer: D

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.19 You have just installed Avaya P Agent R-6 on the computers for all 150 agents. All of the computers can
ping the Communication Manager (CM), but only 100 of the agents can log into their lP Agent station.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ®M ax i m u m C oncu rr en tl y R eg i s t e r ed I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯
screen is set to 100.
B. The ® I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯ sc r een i s se t t o¡ n
C. The ®M u lti m ed i a M od ¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® chan ge s tat o n ¡ ¯ fo r m i s s et t o ¡ ® E nh n c
D. The ®Phone Fea t u r e¡¯ w i nd o w o n t h ¡® S tat ion A dm i n istrat io n f o r m nee d s t o be s e t o ¡® -In ¯.
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.20 You ask the Avaya Call Management System (CMS) administrator to increase the measured trunks.
Since the administrator has not changed parameters before, CMS administration documentation must be
accessed. Which three sections are needed to change parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Free Space Allocation
B. Data Storage Allocation
C. Trunk Group assignment
D. Data Collection
E. Disk Allocation
Answer: A, B, D

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.21 You have been assigned a project to add an ACD to an existing Avaya Call Management System (CMS).
The customer has requested that Avaya provide a turn-key implementation Which three resources will
you schedule? (Choose three)
A. Communication solutions integration - provisioning
B. Communicabon and Solution Integration (C&Sl)
C. software specialist
D. on-site technician
E. Network Integration Center (NIC)
Answer: A, B, D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.22 Which three statements descnbe the correct use of the asaiuui vector vanable when communicating
with an adjunct computer telephony integration application? (Choose three.)
A. Valid lengths of the asaiuui vector variable range from 1 to 24 digits
B. The asaiuu, vector variable allows the adjunct CTI application to set a variable for use in vector
processing
C. A common use for the asaiuui variable in a vector step is to test the assigned value against a threshold
value.
D. The scope of the asaiuui variables is only local
E. Once a value is assigned, it cannot be modified or changed byrne adjunct
Answer: B, C, D

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.23 Your customer is reporting that after hours callers are being disconnected. Recently they changed the
out-of-hours vector from routing to an internal voice mailbox to an off site answering service using a
route-to digits step
What is happening?
A. Dial ahead digits are being discarded
B. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to no.
C. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to °yee
D. Class of Restriction on associated VON has too low of an FRL to allow outcalling
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.24 A customer wishes to allocate the subnet 255.255252.0 to the ® cus t o m e r LAN ne t w o r k i n t e rf ac ¡¯ o n t h
CMS. Which file must be amended to ensure that this net mask is correctly allocated when the CMS
system is rebooted?
A. /etc!subnet
B. /etc/netmasks
C. /etcfnetworks
D. /etcfhosts
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.25 Your customer must be able to confirm that clients have input valid credit card numbers.
As a backup to using a custom CTI application, which vector variable should be used to validate account
numbers?
A. DIV
B. SEL
C. CATR
D. MOD1O
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.26 Your customer has commissioned agents who take both service related calls as well as sales
opportunity calls The agents receive a commission on all sales. Which Business Advocate feature would
assure that agents are provided equal opportunity to take sales related calls?
A. Service Objective
B. Percentage Allocation Distribution
C. Service Level Supervisor
D. Reserve Agent
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.27 A customer adding a second ACD to an existing Avaya Call Management System (CMS). The
customer also wants to add External Call History (ECH) capablrties and Network Printing Interfaces
(NWF), The MuIti-Ste Routing Interface supports one 1CM Penpheral Gateway (PG) and DNS services.
Which implementation affects service to the CMS?
A. adding 1WP
B. adding DNS services
C. adding Multi-Site Routing
D. adding ECH
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.28 You are a team member assigned on a project to install a new Avaya S87XX Media Server and a new
Avaya Call Management System (CMS). Who is responsible for identifying what equipment has arrived at
the customers site?
A. the field technician
B. the client executive
C. the program manager
D. the remote field engineer (RFE)
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.29 When turning on the CMS application an installation engineer receives the message shown:
®C heck i ng t he S ys t e m Tunab l es f o r CM S va l ues m d : m irr o r ed_ r oo t _ fl ag MUST be se t t o 1 CM S canno t r un
without correct tunable values. Error occurred while processing request..... see
/cmsfinstallllogdir/admin.log for detaiIs ¯
Which file will require amending to resolve this problem?
A. /etcftunables
B. /etc/system
C. /cms/insta llftunables
D. /etc/defaultlmirror
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.30 For single site call centers where Call Management System (CMS) data is critical to their business,
which two benefits does the CMS provide for minimum data loss? (Choose two.)
A. disk mirroring
B. Survivable CMS
C. high availability CMS
D. duplicated processors
Answer: A, C

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

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Code d'Examen: 6401.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya examen   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.2 When tracing a system with the System Monitor program you notice that the Roll Over Log button is
grayed out. What is causing this?
A. You have not set your log preferences.
B. You have a firewall in place.
C. You are monitoring the wrong system.
D. You have paused the screen logging, and are no longer gathering data.
Answer: A

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1

NO.3 A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to
wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible
cause for this?
A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1.
B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3.
C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set.
D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always
busy.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.4 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

Avaya examen   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.5 IP Office has a feature, "Conference Meet Me" which allows users to join or start a specific numbered
conference.
Which IP Office Platform does NOT support "Conference Meet Me"?
A. IP Office 401ng
B. IP Office 500 Professional
C. IP Office 403
D. IP Office 500 Standard
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.6 Which IP port does Internet Explorer use to access the ContactStore Web page?
A. 8080
B. 8000
C. 8888
D. 8990
Answer: C

certification Avaya   6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1

NO.7 Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.)
A. POP 3
B. SMTP
C. MAPI
D. IMAP
Answer: B,C

Avaya examen   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1

NO.8 Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose
two.)
A. RAS
B. FastStart
C. Voice Networking
D. Professional License Enabled
Answer: C,D

Avaya examen   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.9 A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server.
Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.)
A. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different
subnet
B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office
C. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different
subnet
D. when the IP Office's DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to
obtain an IP Address Automatically
Answer: A,C

Avaya   6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1

NO.10 What line type supports the IP Office R 4.2 mobile call control functionality?
A. IP DECT Line
B. SIP (RFC2833)
C. IP Line (H.323)
D. Analogue Trunk
Answer: B

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen

NO.11 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

certification Avaya   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.12 You have a customer who has loop start analog trunks. Their callers report that the line rings much
longer than the internal extensions ring. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The line prefix has not been correctly configured.
B. The Ring Off Maximum settings for the trunks are too high.
C. Trunks are set for Loop Start ICLID on the IP Office.
D. The trunk is supplying a long Caller ID string and the Long CLI option has not been checked in
Manager.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   6401.1   6401.1

NO.13 When using Small Community Networking which two features require the Small Community Advanced
License to function? (Choose two.)
A. Hot Desking
B. Hot Desking across the SCN
C. playing queued announcements
D. Break Out dialing
Answer: B,D

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1

NO.14 A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a
phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose
three.)
A. The user profile in Manager has "199" entered as the user name.
B. The phone is set for "Do Not Disturb".
C. The user's "Multi Line Option" is set to "Answer Pre-select".
D. The user mailbox is set to "Blank" under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging.
E. The user's profile has "System Phone" is set to "On".
Answer: A,B,D

Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.15 What information do you need from a customer to be able to reproduce a call park problem? (Choose
three.)
A. accurate description of the problem
B. a System Monitor trace of the problem
C. a Network Assessment
D. the system configuration
E. information on the phones and lines being used
Answer: A,D,E

Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen

NO.16 How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive?
A. 1MB per minute
B. 500KB per minute
C. 2MB per minute
D. 1.5MB per minute
Answer: A

Avaya   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.17 A customer calls and informs you that every time they call voicemail they get a busy signal. The
customer sends you the trace shown below:
0.s PRN: Monitor Started IP=192.168.42.203 IP406 DS 4.0(5) IPOffice_1
1ms PRN: LAW=U PRI=2, BRI=0, ALOG=4, ADSL=0, VCOMP=16, MDM=2, WAN=0
MODU=0 LANM-0, CkSRC=0 VMAIL=0(VER=1 TYP=1) CALLS=39(TOT=20123)
Does the trace show enough information to indicate to the customer where to begin problem resolution
and what the problem may be?
A. Yes, the voicemail is not connected to the system.
B. Yes, the Auto Attendant is using up all of the voicemail channels.
C. No, I would need to see a trace of them calling voicemail.
D. No, I would also need a Debug_View trace of the voicemail.
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1

NO.18 A customer has two IP Office systems connected using Small Community Networking with centralized
voicemail. When calling from one system to another, calls intermittently get one-way audio. Which two are
necessary to begin troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Sniffer trace
C. IP Office Monitor trace information
D. Voicemail console trace
Answer: A,C

Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1

NO.19 You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would
you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer's
network.
B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library
Share.
C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library
share.
D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording
Library share.
E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore
application.
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is
connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the
public network via the head office.
How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit?
A. X - Network -- Y - Fallback
B. X ?Fallback -- Y - Fallback
C. X ?Network -- Y - Unsuitable
D. X ?Fallback -- Y - Unsuitable
Answer: C

Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1

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